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2 years ago

What is the answer to this question

Mathematics

1 answer:

Lisa [10]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:8000 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

=20 to the power of nine-20 to the power of four=20 to the power of three.

20 to the power of three is 8000.

Hope this helps.

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Trig with picture included

Arada [10]

Answer:

1st Option

Step-by-step explanation:

When we draw out our triangle, we see that the height leg is 17 m and the horizontal leg is 100 m with our unknown angle of elevation <em>x</em>:

tanx° = 17/100

$x = tan^{-1}(\frac{17}{100})$

4 0

3 years ago

According to the manufacturer, about 31% of chewy candy in a package of Cherry's Chews are strawberry. What is the probability t

Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

0.3285

Step-by-step explanation:

This problem involves Geometric probability distribution because experiment is repeated different number of times until success is achieved.

we have to find P(X≥4). It can be written as P(X≥4)=1-P(X<4)=1-P(X≤3)

P(X≤3)=?

Using Geometric probability distribution

P(X=n)=p^x*q^n-1

P(X≤3)=P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)

Here p=0.31,

P(X≤3)=0.31^1*0.69^0+0.31^2*0.69^1+0.31^3*0.69^2)=0.6715

P(X≥4)=1-P(X≤3)=1-0.6715=0.3285

The probability that the first strawberry candy chosen from a bag will be, at LEAST, the fourth candy chosen overall is 32.85%.

6 0

3 years ago

Marcie bought a 50- foot roll of package tape. She used two 8 5/6foot lengths. How much tape is left in the roll

Yuliya22 [10]

50 feet - 8 5/6 =

First off, 8 5/6 feet = 8.83

Next, we can subtract. 50 - 8.83 = 41.17

Answer: 41.17

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A well-mixed cookie dough will produce cookies with a mean of 6 chocolate chips apiece. What is the probability of getting a coo

posledela

The probability of getting a cookie with no more than 3 chips is 0.714.

<h3>What is probability?</h3>

It is defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes, in other words, the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

We have:

Well-mixed cookie dough will produce cookies with a mean of 6 chocolate chips apiece.

Using poison ratio:

$\rm P (X = k) = \dfrac{\lambda^k e^{-\lambda}}{k!}$

λ is the mean number of chocolate chips in a piece

$\rm P (X = 6) = \dfrac{6^k e^{-6}}{k!}$

P(X ≥ 5) = 1 - P(X < 5)

P(X ≥ 5) = 1 - P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)

$\rm P(X \geq 5) = 1-[\dfrac{6^0 e^{-6}}{0!}+\dfrac{6^1 e^{-6}}{1!}+\dfrac{6^2 e^{-6}}{2!}+\dfrac{6^3 e^{-6}}{3!}+\dfrac{6^4 e^{-6}}{4!}]$

After solving;

P(X ≥ 5) = 0.714

Thus, the probability of getting a cookie with no more than 3 chips is 0.714.

Learn more about the probability here:

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ1

6 0

2 years ago

Lines C and D below are cut by transversal, t. Which of the following is true about the angles formed? *

vlada-n [284]

Answer: a is true

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago