Answer:
D. $5,786.
Explanation:
The mid-quarter convention applies, so the calculation of property and the machinery is 4 quarter property.
depreciation expense on property = $15000*0.35
= $2520
depreciation expense on machinery = 15000*0.0357
= $536
total depreciation expense = $5250 + $536
= $5786
Therefore, The maximum depreciation expense, (ignoring §179 and bonus depreciation). (Use MACRS Half-Year Convention) is $5786
Answer: An increase in the expected price level shifts short-run aggregate supply to the D. Left, and an increase in the actual price level does not shift short-run aggregate supply.
Explanation: Aggregate supply is the total supply of goods and services that are available in a given market. The producers have production levels match a specific amount of items and then disperse them to the market. As prices change, then quantity supplied and purchased fluctuates accordingly.
If the Fed conducts an open-market sale, bank reserves decrease, and the money supply is likely to decrease.
<h3>Open market operations</h3>
The Federal Reserve (the Fed) uses "open market operations" (OMO) to refer to the process of buying and selling U.S. Treasury securities as well as other securities on the open market in order to manage the amount of cash kept in reserve by U.S. banks. The Fed purchases and sells Treasury securities in order to increase the quantity of money in circulation and to decrease long-term interest rates.
The U.S. Federal Reserve uses open market operations to control the amount of money in circulation by buying and selling bonds and other securities. The Fed can utilize these transactions to increase or reduce the amount of money in the banking system and to raise or lower short-term interest rates, depending on the objectives of its monetary policy.
Learn more about open market operation here:
brainly.com/question/16260032
#SPJ4
Answer:
C) I only.
Explanation:
According to the Uniform Securities Act, A civil case underneath the provisions of the United States must be filed in 3 years of the alleged infringement, or 2 years from the detection of the breach, whatever comes first.
Also, The passing of the consultant or the client doesn't really eliminate a civil liability prima facie case. Waivers to statements agreed to sign by the customer waiving adherence by the consultant with the provisions of this act on which the suit is focused aren't ever legitimate on the examination.
Therefore the option i is correct
