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Tresset [83]
1 year ago
6

Which of the following is true about goods and services?

Business
1 answer:
Angelina_Jolie [31]1 year ago
3 0
U need to provide the options we can pick from please
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Lance lopes went to his bank to find out how long it will take for $1,500 to amount to $2,700 at 15% simple interest. can you so
denis23 [38]
To find simple interest: 

Time = Interest/(Principle)(Rate)

Interest is the amount of interest paid
Principle is the amount you lent or borrow
Rate is the percentage of principle charged as interest each year
Time is the years of the loan

P=Principle amount of $1,500
I=Interest amount of $1,200 (Take the new amount of $2,700 and subtract from the principle that is $1,500 which gives you $1,200)
r= as a decimal .15 (15%/100)
t=unknown

T=I/PR

T=1,200/(1,500)(.15)
T=1,200/225
T=5.3 years 

It would take Lance roughly 5.3 years
3 0
3 years ago
a segment should probably be dropped when the segment blank . multiple select question. has a positive segment margin but cannot
andrew11 [14]

A segment should probably be dropped when the segment has important side effects on other segments cannot cover its own costs. The correct option is B.

<h3>What is a segment margin?</h3>

The profit or loss generated by one component of a business is referred to as segment margin.

Segment margin only considers the segment's revenue and expenses.

By analyzing a company's strengths and weaknesses, segment margin can provide an accurate picture of where it is performing well and where it is not.

If a segment cannot cover its own costs, it should be dropped unless it has significant side effects on other segments.

Thus, the correct option is B.

For more details regarding segment margin, visit:

brainly.com/question/15357689

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
You manage a risky portfolio with an expected rate of return of 17% and a standard deviation of 29%. The T-bill rate is 8%. Your
Anastasy [175]

Answer:

13.85% and 18.9%

Explanation:

As in this exercise we have a free risk asset we will assume that the t-bill has a standard deviation of 0%, so let´s firts calculate the expected return:

E(r)=r_{1}*w_{1} +r_{2}*w_{2} +....+r_{n}*w_{n}

where E(r) is the expected return, r_{i} is the return of the i asset and w_{i} is the investment in i asset, so applying to this particular case we have:

E(r)=17\%*65\%+8\%*35\%

E(r)=13.85\%

the calculation of standar deviation follows the same logic of the previous formula:

Sigma(r)=29\%*65\%+0\%*35\%

Sigma(r)=18.9\%

4 0
3 years ago
Product deletion can best be described as the process of deleting a product from the product mix when it a. no longer responds t
Mamont248 [21]

Answer:

(c). no longer satisfies a sufficient number of customers

Explanation:

Product deletion refers to removal or discontinuance of a product from the product line when such a product has been consistently incurring losses since a number of years and it's further continuation would adversely affect the other products and profitability.

A product is usually deleted from the product line on the grounds of it's failure in satisfying a sufficient number of customers.

Hence, the correct option is (c). no longer satisfies a sufficient number of customers.

5 0
3 years ago
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