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finlep [7]
2 years ago
9

A 50-year-old man presents to the office for evaluation of persistent perianal pain and pressure. He reports it started approxim

ately 4 days ago, and has worsened. He reports he has avoided defecation because of the discomfort. Vital are as follows: T 101.2F, BP 140/80 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an area of fluctuance measuring approximately 4cm in diameter in the right perianal region with swelling of the perirectal tissue on the right. Digital rectal exam reveals significant tenderness in the area of the induration, but normal rectal tone or gross blood. What is the most likely diagnosi
Medicine
1 answer:
Alecsey [184]2 years ago
5 0

The most likely diagnosis following the above listed symptoms is hemorrhoids.

<h3>What are hemorrhoids?</h3>

Hemorrhoids is defined as a disease that occur due to inflammation of the vein at the rectum. The inflammation at the rectal region is due to:

  • Straining during bowel movements.

  • Sitting for long periods of time on the toilet and

  • Having chronic diarrhea or constipation.

Therefore, the likely diagnosis is hemorrhoids.

Learn more about vital signs here:

brainly.com/question/970323

#SPJ12

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3 0
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tankabanditka [31]

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H90.3

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<u>H90.3 is specific/billable ICD-10-CM code which is used to indicate the diagnosis for the reimbursement purposes. </u>

<u>On October 1 2018,2019 edition of ICD-10-CM H90.3 became effective.</u>

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slavikrds [6]

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im sorry can not answer next time.

Explanation:

6 0
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Read 2 more answers
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