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finlep [7]
2 years ago
9

A 50-year-old man presents to the office for evaluation of persistent perianal pain and pressure. He reports it started approxim

ately 4 days ago, and has worsened. He reports he has avoided defecation because of the discomfort. Vital are as follows: T 101.2F, BP 140/80 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an area of fluctuance measuring approximately 4cm in diameter in the right perianal region with swelling of the perirectal tissue on the right. Digital rectal exam reveals significant tenderness in the area of the induration, but normal rectal tone or gross blood. What is the most likely diagnosi
Medicine
1 answer:
Alecsey [184]2 years ago
5 0

The most likely diagnosis following the above listed symptoms is hemorrhoids.

<h3>What are hemorrhoids?</h3>

Hemorrhoids is defined as a disease that occur due to inflammation of the vein at the rectum. The inflammation at the rectal region is due to:

  • Straining during bowel movements.

  • Sitting for long periods of time on the toilet and

  • Having chronic diarrhea or constipation.

Therefore, the likely diagnosis is hemorrhoids.

Learn more about vital signs here:

brainly.com/question/970323

#SPJ12

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Normal, full-term female, spontaneous delivery at the hospital, with congenital left hip subluxation. Code the baby’s record.
diamong [38]

ICD-10-CM in this case represents Z38.00 (single liveborn infant) and Q65.32 (Congenital dislocation of left hip, unilateral).

<h3>What is ICD-10-CM ?</h3>

The International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Clinical Modification code, commonly known as ICD-10-CM, is a coding methodology to analyze health problems and corresponding procedures to prevent and treat them.

The ICD-10-CM codes are widely used in the USA by medical professionals in clinical settings.

In conclusion, ICD-10-CM in this case represents Z38.00 and Q65.32.

Learn more about ICD-10-CM  codes here:

brainly.com/question/9442380

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5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is true about t-PA?
andre [41]

T-PA can only be effectively administered with three hours of a stroke.

<h3>What is T-PA?</h3>

This is referred to as recombinant tissue plasminogen activator and it acts as

a powerful blood thinner which is used in the treatment of stroke

experienced by individuals.

The time the drug is administered is a very important aspect in this form of

treatment. This is because the drug must be effectively administered with

three hours of a stroke. In cases, where this time frame is surpassed, then

other forms of treatment should be given to prevent bleeding in vital organs

of the body such as the brain.

Read more about Tissue plasminogen activator here brainly.com/question/9298370

3 0
2 years ago
The nurse is assessing a 2 - year - old who has a blistered sunbum across the back and shoulders . Which of the following parent
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

if a child has sunburn the approprite way to treat it would be aloe and some antibotics depending on how severe the burn is. I would treat the patient and give some antibotic cream or a specific cream that is to treat several blistered burns. due to no given options on your question i have no idea what anwser to give you. if you comment on my anwser and give my the "select all that applies" ill tell you which ones are correct

Explanation:

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During expiration, the diaphragm relaxes which _____ the intrapulmonary volume causing the intrapulmonary pressure to _____, for
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The right answer should be C).
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A body weight that is a somewhat above a recommended range is generally referred to as ______, and a higher body weight characte
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