Answer:
C. 2.2.
Explanation:
Mid point elasticity is calculated as follows:
<em>% change in qty supplied/ % change in price</em>
<em />
<em>% change in qty supplied</em>
= (600-400)/(600+400)/2
= 0.4
<em> % change in price </em>
= (12 -10)/(12+10)/2
= 0.181
Mid point elasticity
= 0.4/0.18
=2.2
According to the expectancy theory, the employee is likely to see the "effort-performance" relationship as weak and demotivating.
<h3>What is expectancy theory?</h3>
According to expectancy theory, people are more motivated to work hard if they believe their efforts will be noticed and rewarded.
The importance of expectancy theory are-
- When applied correctly, expectation theory can aid managers in understanding why people choose between various behavioural options.
- Managers should implement mechanisms that closely link rewards to performance to improve the relationship between effort and results.
- It is based on an individual's self-interest, who desires to maximize enjoyment and reduce dissatisfaction.
- This philosophy places a strong emphasis on perception and expectations, saying that reality is irrelevant. It places a focus on benefits or payoffs.
According to the Expectancy Value Theory (Vroom, 1964), two things affect why a person chooses to engage in a particular activity or action:
- Expectancy is the likelihood that a desired (instrumental) outcome will be attained as a result of the behaviour or activity.
- Value is the degree to which the individual appreciates the intended outcome.
To know more about the Expectancy Value Theory, here
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On basis of straight-line depreciation method,
Yearly depreciation expense = [Cost of investment - Salvage value] / life
In the current case, salvage vale is assumed to be $0 and the life is 7 years.
Total investment = $4 m + $ (15,000/1,000,000) m + $3 m = $7.015 m
Therefore,
Yearly depreciation expense = 7.015/7 ≈ $1.002 m
Answer:
The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Explanation:
A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.
A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.
In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.
Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
