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klio [65]
2 years ago
7

Jocelyn is training for a race by running several miles each day. she tracks her progress by recording her average speed in minu

tes per mile for each day since she started training. based on the information given, what could jocelyn expect to have for her average speed on the 9th day?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Luden [163]2 years ago
4 0

Finding the regression equation, her average speed on the 9th day should be expected to be of 6.92 minutes per mile.

<h3>How to find the equation of linear regression using a calculator?</h3>

To find the equation, we need to insert the points (x,y) in the calculator.

Researching the problem on the internet, the values of x and y are given as follows:

  • Values of x: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
  • Values of y: 8.2, 8.1, 7.5, 7.8, 7.4, 7.5.

Hence, using a calculator, the equation for the average minutes per mile after t days is given by:

V(t) = -0.15143t + 8.28

Hence, for the 9th day, t = 9, hence the estimate is:

V(9) = -0.15143(9) + 8.28 = 6.92 minutes per mile.

More can be learned about regression equations at brainly.com/question/25987747

#SPJ1

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ycow [4]

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55°

Step-by-step explanation:

One triangle = 180° Therefore 90°+35°+ Unknown acute angle = 180°

125°+ Unknown acute angle = 180°

Unknown acute angle = 180°-125°

Unknown acute angle =55°

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12.63

Step-by-step explanation:

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Write the opposite of 47
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A carnival game gives players a 25% chance of winning every time it has played a player plays the game four times let XP the num
allsm [11]

Answer:

0.6836 = 68.36% probability that the player will win at least once.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the player wins, or the player loses. The probability of winning a game is independent of any other game, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

25% chance of winning

This means that p = 0.25

Plays the game four times

This means that n = 4

What is the probability that the player will win at least once?

This is:

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.25)^{0}.(0.75)^{4} = 0.3164

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3164 = 0.6836

0.6836 = 68.36% probability that the player will win at least once.

8 0
3 years ago
Acme Corporation was able to increase its sales of widgets tenfold by creating a storefront on Amazon. Since Beta Corporation is
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

reasoning is based on Literal Analogy

Step-by-step explanation:

According to my research on different types of reasoning methods, I can say that based on the information provided within the question Beta corporation's reasoning is based on Literal Analogy. This is when an individual compares two things by stating that one is similar to the other in almost every aspect. Which is what is happening in this situation since Acme corporation increased sales by making a storefront, then Beta Corporation believes that they can do the same because they are "literally" the same type of company because they sell the same products.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

5 0
3 years ago
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