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Julli [10]
2 years ago
8

The cost method that will yield an ending inventory value that is somewhere between possible high and low costs (prices) using t

raditional costing methods is the
Business
1 answer:
o-na [289]2 years ago
8 0

The weighted average cost of capital is the cost approach that will produce an ending inventory value that is in between probable high and low costs (prices) using classic costing methods.

The weighted average cost of capital is the average cost of attracting investors, whether bonds or shareholders.

The computation weights the cost of capital depending on the amount of debt and equity used by the firm, providing a clear barrier rate for internal initiatives or future acquisitions.

The weighted average inventory cost is one of the approaches used in inventory valuation. It is computed by dividing the cost of products for sale by the number of units for sale. i.e The cost of the items for sale and the quantity of units for sale. Because it is based on averages, the ending inventory value is generally somewhere between high and low cost.

To know more about weighted average cost of capital click here:

brainly.com/question/17153162

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Upon starting her new position, Brenda is given a _______ that details the tasks, duties, and responsibilities considered a part
Arada [10]

Answer:

The answer is job description (JD).

Explanation:

The job description is the summary of tasks, duties, and responsibilities for a particular position. The job description also includes the requirements for the position holder. In some cases, it may details the reporting line, compensation and benefits regarding to the job.

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following assets held by a manufacturing business is a §1231 asset?
insens350 [35]

Answer:

A factory building used in the business and held more than one year.

Explanation:

<u>According to Section 1231</u>. property are assets that are used in your trade or business and are held by the Taxpayer for more than one year.

The factory building has serve the purpose of the section. It is used for a trade and has been held by the taxpayer for more than a year, hence, the property can be termed an assets by a manufacturing business

6 0
4 years ago
Seven years ago, you paid $324,800 to purchase a rental house. the maintenance expenses average $200 a month and property taxes
Mariulka [41]

The value that would be assigned to this house if you decide to use it as your office would be $ 425300

<h3>How to solve for the value of the house using opportunity cost</h3>

To get the value of the house, you have to get the opportunity cost of the house. This is the foregone alternative or benefits forgone due to another choice.

The formula is opportunity cost = Apprised Value - Selling costs

The apprised value = $439,500.

selling cost =  $14,200

$439,500 - $14,200

= $ 425300

Hence the value that should be assigned to it is $ 425300

Read more on opportunity cost here:

brainly.com/question/1549591

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3 0
2 years ago
You own 25 percent of Unique Vacations, Inc. You have decided to retire and want to sell your shares in this closely held, all-e
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

$6 million

Explanation:

If 25% of the firm is worth $1.5 million, then 100% of the firm will be worth $6 million (= $1.5 million x 4).

This is an all equity firm, which means it has no liabilities, and it is also a closely held corporation which makes it harder for a stockholder to sell his/her shares. Basically the fair value of the 1,000 shares is the money you can get from your fellow shareholders.

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose you bought 100 shares of IBM at $200 per share. What is the maximum loss if you place a stop-loss order at $165
Lynna [10]

Answer:

$3,500

Explanation:

Placing a stop-loss order at $165 means that the last amount that the stock traded, it had a price of $165 per share.

Based on that, it is evident that each stock has lost $35 when compared to the price at which the stop-loss order was placed and the initial cost per share of $200.

Loss per share=$200-$165=$35

The loss incurred on 100 shares of IBM=loss per share*number of shares owned

The loss incurred on 100 shares of IBM=$35*100

The loss incurred on 100 shares of IBM=$3,500

4 0
3 years ago
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