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Elanso [62]
4 years ago
10

What is the equation has intercepts at x(1, 0, 0), y(0, -1,0), and z(0, 0, 2)

Mathematics
1 answer:
bulgar [2K]4 years ago
3 0

In intercept form, the plane that has these intercepts is ...

... x/(x-intercept) + y/(y-intercept) + z/(z-intercept) = 1

... x/1 + y/(-1) + z/2 = 1

... 2x -2y +z = 2 . . . . . in standard form

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Write 42 as a product of primes.
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3 years ago
Please help me with this
drek231 [11]

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100 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the figures are similar

the linear ratio of sides = a : b , then

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Lim 1 - cos 40<br>x&gt;01 - cos 60​
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

The answer is 4/9 if the problem is:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{1-\cos(4\theta)}{1-\cos(6\theta)}.

Step-by-step explanation:

I think this says:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{1-\cos(4\theta)}{1-\cos(6\theta)}.

Please correct me if I'm wrong about the problem.

Here are some useful limits we might use:

\lim_{u \rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(u)}{u}=1

\limg_{u \rightarrow 0}\frac{\cos(u)-1}{u}=0

So for our limit... I'm going to multiply top and bottom by the conjugate of the bottom; that is I'm going to multiply top and bottom by 1+\cos(6\theta):

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{1-\cos(4\theta)}{1-\cos(6\theta)}\cdot\frac{1+\cos(6\theta)}{1+\cos(6\theta)}

When you multiply conjugates you only have to do first and last of FOIL:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{(1-\cos(4\theta))(1+\cos(6\theta))}{1-\cos^2(6\theta)}

By the Pythagorean Identities, the denominator is equal to \sin^2(6\theta):

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{(1-\cos(4\theta))(1+\cos(6\theta))}{\sin^2(6\theta)}

I'm going to divide top and bottom by 36\theta^2 in hopes to use the useful limits I mentioned:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{\frac{(1-\cos(4\theta))(1+\cos(6\theta))}{36\theta^2}}{\frac{\sin^2(6\theta)}{36\theta^2}}

Let's tweak our useful limits I mentioned so it is more clear what I'm going to do in the following steps:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(6\theta)}{6\theta}=1

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{\cos(4\theta)-1}{4\theta}=0

The bottom goes to 1.  The limit will go to whatever the top equals if the top limit exists.  

So let's look at the top in hopes it goes to a number:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{1-\cos(4\theta)}{36\theta^2} \cdot (1+\cos(6\theta)}

We are going to multiple the first factor by the conjugate of the top; that is we are multiply top and bottom by 1+\cos(4\theta):

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{1-\cos(4\theta)}{36\theta^2} \cdot \frac{1+\cos(4\theta)}{1+\cos(4\theta)} \cdot (1+\cos(6\theta)}

Recall the thing I said about multiplying conjugates:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{1-\cos^2(4\theta)}{36\theta^2} \cdot \frac{1+\cos(6\theta)}{1+\cos(4\theta)}

We are going to apply the Pythagorean Identities here:

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin^2(4\theta)}{36\theta^2} \cdot \frac{1+\cos(6\theta)}{1+\cos(4\theta)}

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin^2(4\theta)}{\frac{9}{4}(4\theta)^2} \cdot \frac{1+\cos(6\theta)}{1+\cos(4\theta)}

\lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0}\frac{4}{9}\frac{\sin^2(4\theta)}{(4\theta)^2} \cdot \frac{1+\cos(6\theta)}{1+\cos(4\theta)}

Ok this looks good, we are going to apply the useful limits I mentioned along with substitution to find the remaining limits:

\frac{4}{9}(1)^2 \frac{1+\cos(6(0))}{1+\cos(4(0))}

\frac{4}{9}(1)\frac{1+1}{1+1}

\frac{4}{9}(1)\frac{2}{2}

\frac{4}{9}(1)

\frac{4}{9}

The limit is 4/9.

8 0
3 years ago
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