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grigory [225]
2 years ago
5

PLEASE SEE THE ABOVE PICTURE.Solve this part please fastGive the right answers ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
galina1969 [7]2 years ago
8 0

Step-by-step explanation:

believe it or not, the area of any triangle is

baseline × height / 2

we have here 2 triangles, both with the same baseline (8 cm), but with 2 different heights : 6.5 cm and 4.6 cm.

so, their areas are

8 × 6.5 / 2 = 4 × 6.5 = 26 cm²

8 × 4.6 / 2 = 4 × 4.6 = 18.4 cm²

so, in total, the shaded region is

26 + 18.4 = 44.4 cm²

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Find the Maclaurin series for f(x) using the definition of a Maclaurin series. [Assume that f has a power series expansion. Do n
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Answer:

f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{(n-1)}2^{n}\dfrac{x^n}{n}

Step-by-step explanation:

The Maclaurin series of a function f(x) is the Taylor series of the function of the series around zero which is given by

f(x)=f(0)+f^{\prime}(0)x+f^{\prime \prime}(0)\dfrac{x^2}{2!}+ ...+f^{(n)}(0)\dfrac{x^n}{n!}+...

We first compute the n-th derivative of f(x)=\ln(1+2x), note that

f^{\prime}(x)= 2 \cdot (1+2x)^{-1}\\f^{\prime \prime}(x)= 2^2\cdot (-1) \cdot (1+2x)^{-2}\\f^{\prime \prime}(x)= 2^3\cdot (-1)^2\cdot 2 \cdot (1+2x)^{-3}\\...\\\\f^{n}(x)= 2^n\cdot (-1)^{(n-1)}\cdot (n-1)! \cdot (1+2x)^{-n}\\

Now, if we compute the n-th derivative at 0 we get

f(0)=\ln(1+2\cdot 0)=\ln(1)=0\\\\f^{\prime}(0)=2 \cdot 1 =2\\\\f^{(2)}(0)=2^{2}\cdot(-1)\\\\f^{(3)}(0)=2^{3}\cdot (-1)^2\cdot 2\\\\...\\\\f^{(n)}(0)=2^n\cdot(-1)^{(n-1)}\cdot (n-1)!

and so the Maclaurin series for f(x)=ln(1+2x) is given by

f(x)=0+2x-2^2\dfrac{x^2}{2!}+2^3\cdot 2! \dfrac{x^3}{3!}+...+(-1)^{(n-1)}(n-1)!\cdot 2^n\dfrac{x^n}{n!}+...\\\\= 0 + 2x -2^2  \dfrac{x^2}{2!}+2^3\dfrac{x^3}{3!}+...+(-1)^{(n-1)}2^{n}\dfrac{x^n}{n}+...\\\\=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{(n-1)}2^n\dfrac{x^n}{n}

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2 years ago
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