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Sergeeva-Olga [200]
2 years ago
15

Suppose that the linear probability model yields a predicted value of Y that is equal to 1.3. Explain why this is nonsensical. A

. The predicted value of Y must be between 0 and 1. B. The predicted value of Y is a positive number. C. The predicted value of Y is too low. D. The predicted value of Y is not an integer.
Mathematics
1 answer:
timurjin [86]2 years ago
7 0

The predicted value of Y must be between 0 and 1.

A linear probability model (LPM) is a regression model where the outcome variable is a binary variable, and one or more explanatory variables are used to predict the outcome. Explanatory variables can themselves be binary, or continuous.

Suppose, that the linear probability model yields a predicted value of Y that is equal to 1.3.

This is nonsensical because

The predicted value of Y must be between 0 and 1.

Learn more about linear probability  model here brainly.com/question/23892227

#SPJ4

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algol13

Answer:

If one angle of a triangle is 110 deg and the other two angles are both 35 deg, then the figure is an obtuse isosceles triangle.

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4 years ago
Miguel is playing a game in which a box contains four chips with numbers written on them. Two of the chips have the number 1, on
Iteru [2.4K]

Answer:

P(X_i=2) =\dfrac{1}{6}

P(X_i=-1) =\dfrac{5}{6}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the numbers on the chips = 1, 1, 3 and 5

Miguel chooses two chips.

Condition of winning: Both the chips are same i.e. 1 and 1 are chosen.

Miguel gets $2 on winning and loses $1 on getting different numbers.

To find:

Probability of winning $2 and losing $1 respectively.

Solution:

Here, we are given 4 numbers 1, 1, 3 and 5 out of which 2 numbers are to be chosen.

This is a simple selection problem.

The total number of ways of selecting r numbers from n is given as:

_nC_r = \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

Here, n = 4 and r = 2.

So, total number of ways = _4C_2  = \frac{4!}{2!\times 2!} = 6

Total number of favorable cases in winning = choosing two 1's from two 1's i.e. _2C_2 = \frac{2!}{2! 0! } = 1

Now, let us have a look at the formula of probability of an event E:

P(E) = \dfrac{\text{Number of favorable ways}}{\text{Total number of ways}}

So, the probability of winning.

P(X_i=2) =\dfrac{1}{6}

Total number of favorable cases for -1: (6-1) = 5

So, probability of getting -1:

P(X_i=-1) =\dfrac{5}{6}

Please refer to the attached image for answer table.

7 0
3 years ago
Inequalities!
kari74 [83]
Is there a picture!
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What does (- 1.2) × (0.4) equal?
klasskru [66]

The answer is -0.48.

First, you multiply 1.2 to 4 to get 4.8. Then, since the 4 wasn't 4 but 0.4, you have to divide 4.8 by 10 to get 0.48. Finally, since -1.2 is negative, you put a negative sign in front of 0.48 to get -0.48.

7 0
4 years ago
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