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Lana71 [14]
2 years ago
13

What was the opening price of dow jones industrial average on jun 01, 2017 in the format of xxxxx.xx?

Business
1 answer:
babymother [125]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

21080.28.

Explanation:

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Which of the following is the best example of correlation not being the same as causation? A. A company redesigns a production p
Sauron [17]

Answer: D. During an economic downturn, a company changes its computer policy to only allow purchases of windows-based laptops and see profits go down. The company concludes that windows-based laptops cause profits to go down

Explanation:

In the other options, the new activity done by the company were definite causes of the effects that followed. A more efficient production process will cause gains in productivity. Coupons will bring in more sales and paying employees more will encourage them to engage in more sales.

Concluding that a computer type causes profits to go down however in a period where the economy as a whole is buying less, is simply correlation. In an economic downturn, people are buying less goods in general. The laptops will be no exception and it is not a reflection of people's preference or lack thereof of them.

7 0
3 years ago
A bank is considering two securities: a 30-year treasury bond yielding 7 percent and a 30-year municipal bond yielding 6 percent
Pani-rosa [81]
40 beacuse you divde by 3
3 0
3 years ago
NCH Corporation, which markets cleaning chemicals, insecticides and other products, paid dividends of $2.00 per share in 1993 on
sashaice [31]

Answer:

The reutrn on equity should be of 9.53%

Explanation:

We can solve the return on equity by considering the gordon model of dividend growth:

\frac{divends_1}{return_{equity}-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value

current dividends 2 dollars

next year dividends: current x (1 + g) = 2 x (1 + 0.06) = 2.12

\frac{2.12}{return_{equity}-0.06} = 60

\frac{2.12}{60} +0.06= Ke

Ke = 0.09533 = 9.53%

4 0
3 years ago
The trial balance for Lindor Corporation, a manufacturing company, for the year ended December 31, 2016, included the following
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

Net income = $364,000

Earning per share (EPS) = $0.36 per share.

Explanation:

A continuous multiple-step statement of comprehensive income is a form of income statement shows in a categorical and continuous manner operating income, i.e. the profit earned from the primary activities of an entity through buying and selling merchandise, other income and expenses, and net income.

For this question, continuous multiple-step statement of comprehensive income can be prepared as follows:

Lindor Corporation

Multiple-step Statement of Comprehensive Income for 2016

<u>Details                                                                  $      </u>

Sales revenue                                            2,300,000

Cost of goods sold                                    <u> 1,400,000 </u>

Gross profit                                                   900,000

Operating expenses:

Selling and administrative expenses        <u> (420,000) </u>

Operating income                                        480,000

Non operating income and exp.:

Unrealized holding gains on inv. sec.          80,000

Interest expense                                          <u> (40,000) </u>

Income before tax                                        520,000

Income tax (30% * $520,000)                    <u> (156,000) </u>

Net income                                                  <u>  364,000 </u>

EPS (364,000 / 1,000,000)                                 0.36

8 0
3 years ago
Mazie Supply Co. uses the percent of accounts receivable method. On December 31, it has outstanding accounts receivable of $49,0
natima [27]

Answer:

a. Dr Bad debt expense $1,617

Cr Allowance for doubtful debt $1,617

b. Dr Bad debt expense $2,205

Cr Allowance for doubtful debt $2,205

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Estimated uncollectible amount

= 5% × $49,000

= $2,450

As such, if the allowance for doubtful;

has a $833 credit balance before the adjustment

Additional allowance required

=$2450 - $833

= $1,617

Entries required are

Dr Bad debt expense $1,617

Cr Allowance for doubtful debt $1,617

b) a $245 debit balance before the adjustment.

This means that off the amount uncollectible $245 has already gone bad

Adjusting entries required amounts to

= $2450 - $245

= $2205

Dr Bad debts expense $2205

Cr Allowance for doubtful debt $2205

7 0
3 years ago
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