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Komok [63]
2 years ago
8

In a system of 100-percent-reserve banking, a. banks do not accept deposits. b. banks can increase the money supply. c. banks do

not influence the supply of money. d. loans are the only asset item for banks.
Business
1 answer:
zheka24 [161]2 years ago
8 0

The correct option is C). banks do not influence the supply of money.

<h3>What is 100-percent-reserve banking?</h3>

100-percent-reserve banking, is a system of banking, in which banks only lend from time deposits instead of lending demand deposits.

In a system with 100 percent reserve banking, banks cannot make the loans and do not influence the supply of the money.

This system is also known as full-reserve banking.

Learn more about the 100-percent-reserve banking here:-

brainly.com/question/7295577

#SPJ1

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When the interest rate is above the equilibrium level, a. the quantity of money that people want to hold is less than the quanti
kkurt [141]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

When interest rate is above the equilibrium level, people would be less willing to hold cash. Instead they would prefer to save or invest in  interest-bearing bonds. This is because as a result of the higher interest rate, interest paid on their deposit and investment would be higher.

As a result of the increase in savings, there would be an increase in the supply of loanable funds over demand for loanable funds. This would lead to a reduction in interest rate until equilibrium interest rate is reached.

6 0
3 years ago
On November 30, Year 1, Parlor, Inc. purchased for cash at $15 per share all 250,000 shares of the outstanding common stock of S
zepelin [54]

Answer:

$275,000

Explanation:

Goodwill in business combination arises when the price paid in acquiring a business exceeds the fair value of the acquired business net assets . The fair value is used rather than the carrying amount to ensure fairness and an unbiased result

<u>Workings</u>

Purchase consideration = 250,000*15 =3,750,000

Percentage acquired = 100%

Fair value of net asset = 3,000,000+400,000+75,000= 3,475,000

Goodwill = 3,750,000=3,475,000 =275,000

6 0
4 years ago
When selecting a volume-based cost driver, the goal is to: a. Choose a period where a cost driver is at a low level so that over
Yuliya22 [10]

Answer: The correct answer is "e. Choose an input that varies in a pattern that is most similar to the pattern with which overhead costs vary".

Explanation: When selecting a volume-based cost driver, the goal is to: <u>Choose an input that varies in a pattern that is most similar to the pattern with which overhead costs vary, </u>so that it does not find so much difference between both patterns, so that these are similar.

<u></u>

<u />

7 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Crm%7B%5Cpink%7B%5Cunderline%7B%5Cunderline%7B%5Cblue%7BANSWER%3A-%7D%7D%7D%7D%7D" id="TexFo
Basile [38]
I’m so confused????? Do you need help on anything???
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bond has a face value of $1,000, a coupon of 4% paid annually, a maturity of 30 years, and a yield to maturity of 7%. What rat
Lelechka [254]

Answer:

-11.8%

Explanation:

the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:

price=\frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{1} }+ \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{2} } \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{3} }+...+\frac{principal+principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{n} }

so in this particular case that one year later there are 29 years to maturity so we have:

price=\frac{1,000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{1} }+ \frac{1,000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{2} } \frac{1000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{3} }+...+\frac{1,000+1,000*0.04}{(1+0.08)^{30} }

price=553.6638

so as we have a higher rate the investment has the next return:

return=\frac{553.66}{627.73} -1

return=-11.8\%

4 0
3 years ago
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