You can combine the same numbers with the same variables using the operation sign for each. For example, using your equation, you would combine the 3n and 4n which is 7n. So your equation would be
7n - 2
Step-by-step explanation:
(2,4)===(4,-2)
(4,3)===(3,-4)
(2,3)===(3,-2)
Answer:
x= -4 and y= 27/6
Step-by-step explanation:
-(8x + 6y = -5) which converts to -8x -6y = 5
10x + 6y = -13
simplify from there
-8x + 10x = 2x ; -6y + 6y = 0 ; 5 - 13 = -8
soo, now you have
2x = -8
x = -4
then, plug in to find y
8(-4) + 6y = -5
-32 + 6y = -5 add 32 on both sides
6y = 27 divide both sides by 6
y= 27/6 or 4.5
The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability
- The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
- The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
- The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>
From the question,
- Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
- 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective
From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two
So, the probability is:
p = 23/30
p = 0.767
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>
From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none
So, the probability is:
p = 0/30
p = 0
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>
The probability of hitting a headpin is:
p = 90%
The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:
P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)
So, we have:
P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1
P(4) = 0.3281
Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/25870256
