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Diano4ka-milaya [45]
1 year ago
11

True or false: GAAP require end-of-period adjustments for the estimated bad debts in the period of the credit sale even though t

he specific, non-paying customers have not yet been identified. True false question. True False
Business
1 answer:
Feliz [49]1 year ago
6 0

The given statement can be marked as true because the expense recognition principle requires an estimated expense be reported in the same period as the related credit sale rather than later when the customer is identified.

<h3>What is the GAAP?</h3>

GAAP refers to the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, which is a set of collection of rules and procedures for financial reporting.

The purpose of GAAP is to create a consistent and comparable method of accounting which ensures that a company's financial records are complete and homogeneous.

It also gives a complete picture of the company's financial position.

Learn more about the GAAP here:-

brainly.com/question/24107590

#SPJ1

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What are two companies that are becoming extinct from the digital disruption?
vivado [14]

Answer:

Travel websites such as Expedia (EXPE), Kayak, and Travelocity have eliminated the need for human travel agents.

Tax software such as TurboTax has eliminated tens of thousands of jobs for tax accountants.

Newspapers have seen their circulation numbers decline steadily, replaced by online media and blogs. Increasingly, computer software is actually writing news stories, especially local news and sporting event results.

Language translation is becoming more and more accurate, reducing the need for human translators. The same goes for dictation and proof-reading.

Secretaries, phone operators, and executive assistants are being replaced by enterprise software, automated telephone systems, and mobile apps.

4 0
3 years ago
According to Miles and Snow, a company that operates in at least two different product-market areas in which one product is stab
Kruka [31]
It is B) Reactors
Because they operate
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Present value​ (with changing interest​ rates). Marty has been offered an injury settlement of ​$12 comma 000 payable in 3 years
lesantik [10]

Answer:

If opportunity cost is 5%, PV=10,366.05

If opportunity cost is 6.5%, PV=9,934.19

If opportunity cost is 11.5%, PV=8,656.79

Explanation:

PV=Σ(\frac{CF_{t} }{(1+i)^{t} })

If opportunity cost is 5%: PV = \frac{12,000 }{(1+0.05)^{3} } =10,366.05

If opportunity cost is 6.5%: PV = \frac{12,000 }{(1+0.065)^{3} } =9,934.19

If opportunity cost is 11.5%: PV = \frac{12,000 }{(1+0.115)^{3} } =8,656.79

8 0
3 years ago
A vice president of operations wants to evaluate the impact of reducing manufacturing expenses on the firm's return on assets. W
frosja888 [35]

Available Options Are:

a. Cost of Goods Sold

b. Net Profit Margin

c. None of these

d. Asset Turnover

Answer:

Option B. Net Profit Margin

Explanation:

The increase or decrease in cost of Goods sold can not tell whether the return on assets has increased or decreased becuase it would only tell that the expense are decreased or increased not the profit. Which means it only tells one side of the story hence Option A is incorrect.

Option B is correct because it talks about the profit. If the manufacturing cost has been decreased then the it must increase the profit. Because if the profits has increased then the return on asset will increase. Hence the Option B is correct here.

Option D is incorrect because asset turnover formula is:

Asset Turnover = Sales / Total Assets

The decrease in manufacturing cost will not increase the sales because sales and total assets are independent of manufacturing expenses hence the Option D is incorrect.

3 0
3 years ago
Assume that ExxonMobil uses a standard cost system for each of its refineries. For the Houston refinery, the monthly fixed overh
maksim [4K]

Answer:

a. Fixed overhead budget variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - Actual fixed overhead

= $8,000,000 - $8,750,000

= $750,000 Unfavorable

b. Predetermined overhead rate per barrel = $8,000,000 / 5,000,000

= $1.60 per barrel

Fixed overhead applied = 5,100,000 * $1.60

= $8,160,000

Fixed overhead volume variance = Fixed overhead applied - Budgeted fixed overhead  

= $8,160,000 - $8,000,000

= $160,000 Favorable

c. Fixed overhead budget variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - Actual fixed overhead

Predetermined overhead rate per barrel = Budgeted fixed overhead / Planned outputs

Fixed overhead volume variance = Fixed overhead applied - Budgeted fixed overhead  

5 0
2 years ago
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