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Zina [86]
2 years ago
10

"Spin" boils down to outright lying in order to cover up what actually happened in a situation.

Business
1 answer:
kaheart [24]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:True

Explanation:

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________ is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises. Multiple Choice Business process reengineering
stich3 [128]

(C) Business process reengineering (BPR) is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises.

<h3>What is Business process reengineering (BPR)?</h3>
  • Business process re-engineering (BPR) is an early 1990s business management method that focuses on the analysis and design of workflows and business processes within a company.
  • BPR seeks to assist firms in fundamentally rethinking how they do business in order to improve customer experience, reduce operational costs, and compete on a global scale.
  • BPR aims to assist businesses in significantly restructuring their organizations by focusing on the design of their business processes from the ground up.
  • A business process, according to early BPR proponent Thomas H. Davenport (1990), is a sequence of logically related operations executed to produce a specific business objective.

Therefore, (C) business process reengineering (BPR) is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises.

Know more about Business process reengineering here:

brainly.com/question/14019951

#SPJ4

Complete question:

__________ is the analysis and redesign of workflow within and between enterprises.

Multiple Choice

(A) Critical success factors (CSFs)

(B) Benchmarking metrics

(C) Business process reengineering (BPR)

(D) Decision support interfaces (DSI)

5 0
2 years ago
In its simplest form, amdahl's law maintains that if a given program would take one hour to run to completion with one processor
AlladinOne [14]
<span>20% is the maximum speed up possible for this program. For this problem, let's assign the time of 1 for the task when using a single processor. Now let's assume that we have an infinite number of processors available to handle the portion of the program that can be executed in parallel so that the execution time for that portion will be 0. That means that the total execution time with an infinite number of processors will be 1 * (0.80 + 0) = 1 * 0.80 = 0.80 So at best, the parallel program will take 80% of the time for the single threaded version. So the speed increase will be (1 - 0.80) / 1 = 0.20/1 = 0.20 = 20%</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Name the institution that makes it possible for investors to buy and sell shares in South Africa​
olga2289 [7]

Answer:

Johannesburg Stock Exchange

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
At the beginning of the year, Cullumber Company had total assets of $864,000 and total liabilities of $523,000. (Treat each item
Radda [10]

Answer:

a. $583,000

b.  $878,000

c. $330,000

Explanation:

In this question, we have to use the accounting equation which is presented below:

Total assets = Total liabilities + stockholder's equity

$864,000 = $523,000 + stockholder's equity

So, the stockholder's equity = $864,000 - $523,000 = $341,000

a. New assets = Old assets + addition

                       = $864,000 + $156,000

                       = $1,020,000

New liabilities =  Old liabilities - reduction

                       = $523,000 - $86,000

                       = $437,000

So, the stockholder's equity = $1,020,000 -  $437,000 = $583,000

b. New liabilities =  Old liabilities + addition

                           = $523,000 + $91,000

                           = $614,000

New equity =  Old equity - reduction

                   =  $341,000 - $77,000

                   = $264,000

So, the total assets = New liabilities + New equity  

                                =  $614,000 + $264,000

                                = $878,000

c. New assets = Old assets - reduction

                       = $864,000 - $90,000

                       = $774,000

New equity = Old equity + addition

                   = $341,000 + $103,000

                   = $444,000

So, the total liabilities = $774,000 - $444,000 = $330,000

7 0
3 years ago
The Wong family has a disposable income of $70,000 annually. Currently, the Wong family spends 80% of new disposable income on c
USPshnik [31]

Answer:

Annual consumer spending for the Wong family is = $58.000

Explanation:

Disposable income $70,000

Marginal propensity to consume 0.8

Autonomous consumption spending $10,000.

If the disposable income (the money needed to survive) is $10.000 then the $60.000 left to complete $70.000 will be consumed at a rate of 80% or 0.8 cents per each dollar received. Therefore,

Annual consumer spending = $10.000 + ($60.000*0.8)

Annual consumer spending = $10.000 + $48.000

Annual consumer spending = $58.000

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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