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Mademuasel [1]
2 years ago
11

Many older companies have changed from a defined-benefit plan to a(n) ________, which is a retirement plan where workers are cre

dited with a percentage of their pay each year, plus a predetermined rate of interest. Question 23 options: funded pension plan cash balance plan unfunded pension plan percentage plus inflation plan None of these
Business
1 answer:
avanturin [10]2 years ago
6 0

Cash balance plan is a retirement plan where workers are credited with a part of their pay annually and a predetermined rate of interest.

<h3><u>What is a Cash balance Plan?</u></h3>

A defined-benefit pension plan with a lifetime annuity option is referred to as a "cash balance pension plan."

<h3><u>What are some features of Cash balance plans?</u></h3>
  • Based on defined-benefit needs, the financing caps, funding requirements, and investment risk are established.
  • Like a defined-contribution plan, this type of plan is managed on an individual account basis.
  • The advantage of these programs is that age-based contribution caps are available.
  • Pretax contributions enable those 60 and older to save significantly more money each year than younger people.

You can learn more about defined pension plans work using the following link:

brainly.com/question/15241364

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You might be interested in
When customers join the Daily Needs Reward Zone, they receive one point on every purchase they make at Daily Needs stores and Da
Tanya [424]

Answer: A customer loyalty program

Explanation:  

  A customer loyalty program is one of the type of marketing based program that is specifically designed to strengthen the relations between the organization and the consumers.

The main purpose of a loyalty program is that it helps in encourage and also motivating the various types of consumers for using the products and the services which is specifically related to the given program.  

According to the given question, a customer loyalty program is best illustrating the given situation and the Daily needs reward zone is basically using this type of program.

Therefore, Customer loyalty program is the correct answer.

5 0
3 years ago
Marginal revenue can become negative for A. both competitive and monopoly firms. B. monopoly firms but not for competitive firms
Lena [83]

Answer:

B. monopoly firms but not for competitive firms.

Explanation:

Marginal revenue can become negative for monopoly firms but not for competitive firms.

A monopolist’s marginal revenue is always less than or equal to the price  of the good.

Marginal revenue is the amount of revenue the firm receives for  each additional unit of output. It is the difference between total revenue – price  times quantity – at the new level of output and total revenue at the previous  output (one unit less).

Since the monopolist’s marginal cost curve lies below its demand curve.  When a monopoly increases amount sold, it has two effects on total revenue:

– the output effect: More output is sold, so Q is higher.

– the price effect: To sell more, the price must decrease, so P is lower.

For a competitive firm there is no price effect. The competitive firm can sell  all it wants at the given price.

So the marginal revenue on a monopolist's additional unit sold is lower than the price, <u>because it gets less revenue for selling additional units.</u>

<u>Marginal revenue can become negative – that is, the total revenue decreases from one output level to the next. </u>

5 0
3 years ago
If a country imposes a tariff on imported shoes, we expect the domestic price of shoes to ______ .
boyakko [2]

If a country imposes a tariff on imported shoes, we expect the domestic price of shoes to rise, domestic consumption to fall, and domestic production to rise.

A levy on imported goods is known as a tariff. The use of an example is the simplest way to explain how it operates. The US lumber industry is the example we've used throughout this section, and it's continuing below. The domestic equilibrium price and quantity in the domestic market are $1,000 per board foot and 40 million board feet, respectively. PD = $1,000 and QD = 40,000,000 are used to represent this. The world price, or PW, in this instance is significantly less than the local price. While this is not always the case, if PW is higher than PD, there is no reason to import (This model assumes that imports are identical to domestic products in every respect except for price).

American customers will buy a lot more lumber if they can obtain imports for as little as $400. The number of units they will be demanded will rise to 70 million (40 million more than the domestic equilibrium). With the improved accessibility to inexpensive lumber, these consumers are vastly better off.

The imports, on the other hand, cause domestic producers to lose a significant amount of surplus. Previously, they could have provided 40 million board feet of lumber for $1,000, but now they can only provide 10 million. This is due to the fact that many domestic companies will either exit the market or reduce production since they can no longer compete with the foreign production.

60 million board feet of lumber are imported from Canada out of a total production of 70 million board feet, 10 million of which are produced domestically.

To lean more about Tariffs from the given link.

brainly.com/question/26923792

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3 0
1 year ago
Assume the real rate of interest is 3.00% and the inflation rate is 6.00%. What is the value today of receiving 14,488.00 in 13.
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

Present Value= $15,874.25

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Assume the real rate of interest is 3.00% and the inflation rate is 6.00%. What is the value today of receiving 14,488.00 in 13.00 years?

<u>This is a rare case where the interest rate is negative:</u>

Interest rate= 0.03 - 0.06= -0.03

Having said this, the present value is higher than the final value:

PV= FV/ (1+i)^n

PV= 14,488/ 0.97^3= $15,874.25

6 0
4 years ago
E3-27 (book/static) The Home Style Eats has two restaurants that are open 24 hours a day. Fixed costs for the two restaurants to
vazorg [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

Contribution Margin=Sales - variable cost =$8.75-$3.50=$5.25

Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution Margin / Sales = $5.25/ $8.75=60%

Pre-Tax Net Income=Net Income/(1-tax rate)

$117,600/(1-0.36)=$183,750

Target Revenue =Fixed cost +Target Pre-Tax net Income/Contribution margin Ratio =($430,500+$183,750)/0.6=$1,023,750

2. Number of customers needed to Break Even

Fixed costs/Contribution margin per unit=$430,500/$5.25=82,000 Customers

Number of customers to earn 117,600 = (Fixed costs + 117,600)/5.25 = (430,500+117,600)/5.25 = 104,400

3.  

Sales (170,000*8.75)   1,487,500

Less: Cost of goods sold   (170,000*3.50)  -595,000

Contribution margin  892,500

Less: fixed costs  -430,500

Net Income before tax  462,000

Less: tax rate (462,000*36%)  - 166,320

Net Income after tax   295,680

3 0
3 years ago
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