Answer:
a. 0.93 b. 0.06 c. 0.05
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability is commonly known as the chance of success of a particular event. The probability of failure of the event can also be estimated.
(a) Probability of not having type 2 defect is:
= 1 - 0.07 = 0.93
(b) Probability of having type 1 and 2 defects is: ![P(A_{1} n A_{2}) = P(A_{1}) + P(A_{2}) - P(A_{1}U A_{2}) = 0.12 + 0.07 - 0.13 = 0.06](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A_%7B1%7D%20n%20A_%7B2%7D%29%20%3D%20P%28A_%7B1%7D%29%20%2B%20P%28A_%7B2%7D%29%20-%20P%28A_%7B1%7DU%20A_%7B2%7D%29%20%3D%200.12%20%2B%200.07%20-%200.13%20%3D%200.06)
(c) probability pf having both type 1 and type 2 defects but not type 3 defect is:
![P(A_{1} + A_{2} + A^{'} _{3}) = P(A_{1} n A_{2}) - P(A_{1} n A_{2} n A_{3}) = 0.06 - 0.01 = 0.05](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28A_%7B1%7D%20%2B%20A_%7B2%7D%20%2B%20A%5E%7B%27%7D%20_%7B3%7D%29%20%3D%20P%28A_%7B1%7D%20n%20A_%7B2%7D%29%20-%20P%28A_%7B1%7D%20n%20A_%7B2%7D%20n%20A_%7B3%7D%29%20%3D%200.06%20-%200.01%20%3D%200.05)
did you ever get the answer?
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Given:
28/36 ratio
annual income: 86,250
28+36 = 64
28/64 * 86,250 = 0.4375 * 86,250 = 37,734.375
36/64 * 86,250 = 0.5625 * 86,250 = 48,515.625
28/36 ⇒ 37,734.375/48,515.625
It’s True.. you take the “extreme” variable from each proportion and cross multiply them before setting them equal to the product of the two “means” (which are just the other 2 numbers in the proportions).