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jeka57 [31]
2 years ago
14

2. Two rectangular lots are adjacent to each other, as shown in the diagram below. Using a function operation, determine how man

y times bigger the large lot is than the small lot. Clearly identify the individual component functions and simplified final equation. ​
Mathematics
1 answer:
Galina-37 [17]2 years ago
8 0

The large rectangle is 8/3 times bigger than the small rectangle.

<h3>How to explain the area?</h3>

Area of large rectangle will be:

= 4x(2x - 2)

= 8x² - 8x

Area of small rectangle will be:

= (3x - 3)x

= 3x² - 3x

The ratio will be:

= 8x² - 8x/3x² - 3x

= 8(x² - x)/3(x² - x)

= 8/3

The large rectangle is 8/3 times bigger than the small rectangle.

Learn more about rectangles on:

brainly.com/question/25292087

#SPJ1

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When modeling hourly pay, which part of the equation is used to represent the<br> hourly rate?
lesantik [10]

Answer:

y = mx + b

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason is,  x is always the hour, and m is the amount of money you earn in the hours.

3 0
3 years ago
There are 31 flavors of ice cream, 2 choices of cones, 1 scoop, 2 scoops, or 3 scoops. How many different choices are there?
Kitty [74]

Answer:

There are 39 different choices

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the the flavors of ice cream the cones and the scoops.

31+2=33

1+2+3=6

33+6=39

Hope this helps

7 0
3 years ago
If 1 inch is 500 miles, then 4 inches is how many miles?
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

2,000 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given:

1 inch=500 miles

This can be rewritten as:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}

This is representative of a unit rate, as we have a 1 in the denominator. To calculate the number of miles in 4 inches, simply multiply the unit rate by 4:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}*4=

\frac{2000 miles}{4 inches}

This can rewritten as:

4inches=2000miles

Therefore, there are 2,000 miles in 4 inches.

-

We can check our solution by simplifying the fraction \frac{2000 miles}{4 inches} by dividing both 2000 and 4 by 4 to see if we achieve the unit rate:

\frac{500 miles}{1 inch}

Since this is in fact the unit rate, our solution is correct!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the area of the shaded section only in the future below.
maxonik [38]

Answer:

293.5

Step-by-step explanation:

40×50/2

=1000 cm²

π×15²

3.14×225

706.5

1000-706.5=293.5 cm²

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please help?
kipiarov [429]
The second one. Hope this helps:)

6,025, 305< 6,026,305< 6,027,305.
3 0
3 years ago
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