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Aneli [31]
2 years ago
15

PLEASE HELP IM STUCK PLS

Mathematics
1 answer:
QveST [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<u>The slope is -3.</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope is the Rise/Run between the two points.  The change in y for every change in x.  Take the two points and calculate the:

RISE = (-6 - 3) = -9

RUN = (8 - 5) = 3

Rise/Run, or slope, is = -9/3 or -3

I graphed a line with slope of -3 and then added 18 to force the line to intersect the two given points.

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Time value of money calculations can be solved using a mathematical equation, a financial calculator, or a spreadsheet. Which of
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

To answer this question, we can assume some different possibilities for the answer, since it is incomplete (or with not clear options):

a. \\ \frac{PMT}{r}

b. \\ PMT*\frac{(1+r)^{n}-1}{r}*(1 + r)

c. \\ PMT*\frac{(1+r)^{n} - 1}{r}  

Answer:

a. \\ PV_{perpetuity}=\frac{PMT}{r}

Step-by-step explanation:

The present value of a <em>perpetuity</em> is an <em>amount of money needed to invest today</em> to have a perpetuity, or an annuity paid for life, considering an interest rate of <em>r</em>.

PMT is a finance term for <em>payment</em> and <em>r </em>is the interest rate (roughly, an important quantity that defines how much it can be obtained for an investment).

In general, the present value can be mathematically defined as:

\\ PV(r) = \frac{PMT_{0}}{(1+r)^{0}} + \frac{PMT_{1}}{(1+r)^{1}} + \frac{PMT_{2}}{(1+r)^{2}}+\dotsc+\frac{PMT_{n}}{(1+r)^{n}}

Where <em>n</em> represents the number of periods for the investment.

On the other hand, an annuity, given a present value <em>PV</em>, is defined by:

\\ PMT= A = PV*(1+r)^{n}*(\frac{r}{(1+r)^{n}-1})

Solving this equation for <em>PV</em> (present value) to define the present value of an annuity, we have:

\\ PV = \frac{(1+r)^{n}-1}{(r*(1+r)^{n})}*PMT

But the question is asking for an annuity paid for life (theoretically, for infinite periods of time); then, if we calculate the <em>limit</em> for the previous equation when <em>n</em> tends to <em>infinity</em>, we find that:

\\ lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(1+r)^{n}-1}{(r*(1+r)^{n})}*PMT

\\ (lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(1+r)^{n}}{r*(1+r)^{n}} - lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{r*(1+r)^{n}})*PMT

\\ (lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(1+r)^{n}}{(1+r)^{n}}*\frac{1}{r} - lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{r*(1+r)^{n}})*PMT

\\ (lim_{n\to\infty} 1*\frac{1}{r} - lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{r*(1+r)^{n}})*PMT

The second term of the previous expression tends to 0 (zero) when <em>n</em> tends to <em>infinity</em>, then:

\\ (lim_{n\to\infty} 1*\frac{1}{r})*PMT

\\ (1*\frac{1}{r})*PMT

\\ \frac{PMT}{r} or

\\ PV_{perpetuity}=\frac{PMT}{r}

This expression represents that, with an interest of <em>r</em>, if we make an investment of PMT today, then we will have an annuity of \\ \frac{PMT}{r} for life, because in each period PMT would be the same again due to the interest rate (r).

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Answer:

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