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Irina-Kira [14]
1 year ago
9

Let f(x) = xe−x if x ≥ 0 and f(x) = 0 if x < 0 Is f a probability density function?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lynna [10]1 year ago
3 0

Yes. f(x) is a PDF if

• f(x) \ge 0 for all x in the support; this is true, since e^{-x}>0 for all x, and multiplying a positive number x doesn't change this fact;

• the integral of f(x) over its support is 1; this is also true, since

\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) \, dx = \int_0^\infty xe^{-x} \, dx = 1

which can be computed by parts.

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Answer:

Option d is correct.

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The graph of the question is obtained from another brainly question on here. But uploading it will lead to deletion of this answer as it would be violating the community guidelines here.

So, I'm going to describe the graph.

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