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Mandarinka [93]
2 years ago
15

An asset's ______ is the ease with which it can be converted quickly into the most widely accepted and easily spent form of mone

y, cash, with little or no loss of purchasing power.
Business
2 answers:
andreev551 [17]2 years ago
8 0

The answer is liquidity of the asset.

When an asset is purchased or sold, its liquidity relates to how readily it may be changed to cash. Cash is the most liquid asset since it can be traded fast and readily without affecting its market value.

Liquidity is defined as having enough cash on hand to satisfy financial obligations. Cash or the property that can be easily converted to cash without suffering a significant loss in value are examples of liquid assets. Higher the liquidity better it is .

Therefore, the answer is asset's liquidity.

To know more about liquidity click here:

brainly.com/question/25894261

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KonstantinChe [14]2 years ago
5 0

An asset's liquidity is the ease with which it can be converted quickly into the most widely accepted and easily spent form of money, cash, with little or no loss of purchasing power.

<h3>What is Asset Liquidity?</h3>
  • When a financial asset is bought or sold, its liquidity relates to how quickly it may be transformed into cash. The ability to move cash quickly and readily without affecting its market value makes it the asset with the highest liquidity.
  • An asset is considered to be liquid if it can quickly and easily be turned into cash. Cash, instruments from the money market, and marketable securities are examples of liquid assets.
  • Keeping track of the liquid assets that make up a component of one's net worth can be a worry for both individuals and organizations.
  • A company's liquid assets are recorded as current assets on its balance sheet for financial accounting reasons.

To learn more about the Asset's Liquidity refer to:

brainly.com/question/13525747

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You might be interested in
Which crime is BEST represented by the following situation?
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

The answer is C. Money Laundering

Explanation:

Solution

From the question stated it can be described as a crime of money laundering.

Money laundering involves the use of illegally obtained money for legitimate purposes.

In this scenario, Jeff uses $15,000 from his illegal sales of drug paraphernalia for setting up a toy store. The origin of the money, which was obtained through illegal method was hidden.

Robbery and larceny are examples of theft that involves stealing items of value from another person. Embezzlement is also a kind of theft. It involves withholding of items with the intention of theft .

4 0
4 years ago
A mortgage of $80,000 with 2 points means the borrower would have to pay at closing $800. Group startsTrue or FalseTrue, unselec
zavuch27 [327]

A mortgage of $80,000 with 2 points means the borrower would have to pay at closing $800 is false because the real pay at closing is $1,600.

<h3>What is mortgage?</h3>

A mortgage is a loan that is used to buy or to maintain a land, home, or other sort of real estate.

The borrower checks to refund the lender over a period of time, usually in an ordination of regular installments divided into principal and interest. The property is used as security for the loan.

According to the given information,

Mortgage Amount = $80,000

Points = 2

Let the 2 points is taken as a percentage:

Point 1 = 1%, and

Point 2 = 2%

Now, as we know that in the loan process, the amount of point is cyphered at the closing. Then, the closing cost is commuted as:

\text{Closing Cost Amount} =\text{Mortgage} \times \text{Points}\\\\\text{Closing Cost Amount} =$80,000 \times 2\%\\\\\text{Closing Cost Amount} =\$1,600

Therefore, the given problem is false, that the borrower have to pay $800, he would have to pay only $1,600.

Learn more about the mortgage, refer to:

brainly.com/question/15074748

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3 0
2 years ago
On April 1, Lewis Company paid $14,400 for two years of insurance in advance. Lewis Company recorded the transaction by debiting
Dominik [7]

Answer:

31 Dec       Expense A/c Dr.                      $5,400

                         To Prepaid Expense A/c                   $5,400

(Therefore, expense for the current financial year recorded)

Explanation:

We know that at the time of insurance paid in advance on 1 April for 2 years, entry was;

Prepaid Insurance A/c Dr.            $14,400

                 To Cash A/c                                      $14,400

Now at year end the expense relating to current period shall be recognized properly in the books, so that matching principle of revenue against expenses shall be matched.

Thus, period from 1 April to 31 December = 9 months

Expense for 9 months = 14,400 \times \frac{9}{24} = 5,400

That means expense for the year = $5,400

Therefore, entry for such recording will be:

31 Dec       Expense A/c Dr.                      $5,400

                         To Prepaid Expense A/c                   $5,400

(Therefore, expense for the current financial year recorded)

6 0
3 years ago
Total costs are $180,000 when 10,000 units are produced; of this amount, variable costs are $64,000. What are the total costs wh
chubhunter [2.5K]
I think it would be C
5 0
3 years ago
Shares of RossCorp stock are selling for $45 per share. Brokerage commissions are 2% for purchases and 2% for sales. The interes
maksim [4K]

Answer:

The price at which a margin call would be received is $28.929.

Explanation:

The stated question does not contain complete information. The remaining information is as follows.

<em>Assume that you purchase 150 shares of RossCorp stock at $45 each by making a margin deposit of 55 percent. At what price would you receive a margin call?</em>

The price is calculated using the formula for maintenance margin as follows.

Maintenance margin = Equity in account / Value of stock

Equity in account = (Shares purchased x Call price) - (Shares purchased x Remaining ratio x Sale price)

Equity in account = (150 x P) - (150 x 0.45 x 45)

                             = 150P - 3037.5

Value of stock = Shares purchased x Call price

                        = 150P

Inserting these values into the formula for maintenance margin:

0.3 = (150P - 3037.5) / 150P

45P = 150P - 3037.5

105P = 3037.5

P = 28.929

Hence, the price at which a margin call would be received is $28.929.

6 0
3 years ago
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