Answer:
The 52 of its portfolio should be allocated to the zero-coupon bonds to immunie if there are no other assets funding the plan.
Explanation:
the duration of the perpetuity = (1+YTM)/YTM
= (1+0.04)/0.04
= 26 years
the weights of the bonds = w
5*w + 26*(1-w) = 15
5*w + 26 - 26*w = 15
21*w = 11
w = 0.52
Therefore, The 52 of its portfolio should be allocated to the zero-coupon bonds to immunie if there are no other assets funding the plan.
Answer:
This implies or states to low openness to experience
Explanation:
Low openness to experience, it is related to people who are mostly dedicated to work they do and make sure that their tasks or work through to the end.
So, in this case, Barney, who is the manager is very resistant to adapt the change, very conventional and does not accept the new ideas so easily. This states that the manager, is very low for experiencing the openness or to the new ideas.
It is True, In a defined benefits plan, the employer bears the investment risks in funding a future retirement income benefit.
Who bears the chance in defined benefits plan?
defined benefits plan also are known as pension plans. Employers sponsor defined benefit plans and promise the plan's investments will provide you with a specified monthly gain at retirement. The employer bears the funding dangers.
What's a defined benefits plan?
An organization-subsidized retirement plan wherein employee benefits are taken care of out based on a system the use of factors which includes income history and length of employment.
What's the risk of defined benefits plan?
Word that pension danger arises handiest with defined benefits plan. A defined-advantage 401-k plan promises to pay a particular (defined) gain to retired employees. to fulfill this obligation, the organization ought to invest wisely so that it has the finances to pay the promised advantages.
Who benefits most from a defined benefits plan?
More youthful personnel have longer for the cash to grow. contributions may be deductible depending on income limits. Contributions aren't deductible, they may be made with after tax dollars and can keep past seventy two if nonetheless running.
Learn more about defined benefits plan here:- brainly.com/question/12143528
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Answer:
36.26%
Explanation:
Simple rate of return:
return/investment
<u>return:</u>
In this case, it will be the cost saving for the new machine: 161,000
<u>investment</u>
We will decrease the investment by the recovery from the old machine.
468,000 new machine - 24,000 salvage value of new = 444,000
<u>Then, proceed to calculate:</u>
161,000/444,000 = 0.3612 = 36.26%
Consideration:
Is important to state that this rate, do not consider the time value of money, neither the cash flow of the project.
