Answer:
The depreciation expense for the first two years is $72,000.
Explanation:
Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (Cost - Residual value) / No of years = ($400,000 - $40,000) / 10 years = $36,000 yearly depreciation expense.
Using this method, the depreciation expense for the first two years is $36,000 x 2 years = $72,000. This amount is regarded as the accumulated depreciation at the end of Year 2 while the net book value would be $400,000 - $72,000 = $328,000.
Answer:
Maintenance total cost: 325,000
Cost Allocated to Packagin from Maintenance 162,500
Explanation:
![\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}&Maintenance&Cafeteria&Assembly&Packaging\\Employees&4&&8&8\\Direct \: Cost&270,000&275,000&&\\Allocate C&55,000&-275,000&&\\Subtotal&325,000&&110,000&110,000\\Allocate M&-325,0004&-15,760&-162,500&-162,500\\Total&&&272,500&272,500\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccccc%7D%26Maintenance%26Cafeteria%26Assembly%26Packaging%5C%5CEmployees%264%26%268%268%5C%5CDirect%20%5C%3A%20Cost%26270%2C000%26275%2C000%26%26%5C%5CAllocate%20C%2655%2C000%26-275%2C000%26%26%5C%5CSubtotal%26325%2C000%26%26110%2C000%26110%2C000%5C%5CAllocate%20M%26-325%2C0004%26-15%2C760%26-162%2C500%26-162%2C500%5C%5CTotal%26%26%26272%2C500%26272%2C500%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
We will divide the cafeteria cost by the sum of employees of the department and maintenance.
4+8+8 = 20
275,000/20 = 13,750
Then we multiply this by each department employees and add them to their cost.
Maintenance total cost after adding cafeteria is 325,000
Then we do the same, we divide this amount for the emplyees of the processsing department:
8 + 8 = 16
325,000/16 =20,325.5
Then we multiply by 8 employees: 162,500
Maintenance total cost: 325,000
Cost Allocated to Packagin from Maintenance: 162,500
Answer: c. $100 favorable fixed operating cost variance
Explanation:
Cost Variance is a way of measuring the efficiency of a Company or segment in terms of how well they are managing resources and keeping with the budget.
It is calculated by subtracting the Actual balance from the Budgeted balance.
If the result is negative it is called UNFAVORABLE. If it is positive on the other hand it'll be labeled FAVORABLE.
Option C is correct because,
Budgeted balance of Fixed Cost is 500.
Actual balance is 400.
Fixed Operating Cost Variance = 500 - 400
= $100
$100 is positive so it is $100 FAVORABLE.
Answer:
The answers are:
- decrease; increase
- moral hazard; increase
Explanation:
When you deposit money in your bank account, you know that the money is safe ad even f the bank goes bankrupt, you will be able to get your money bank. That is exactly what deposit insurance does, it increases the public trust in banks.
But if bank customers feel too safe about deposit insurance, they might forget to look for the best bank possible to hold their savings. If it doesn't matter what bank you use to save money, since you are guaranteed to get your money back, you might choose any bank without even checking how its performing.
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