Answer:
(b) 1440
Explanation:
As the coupon rate of 8% is greater than the yield to maturity (YTM) of 6% annually, the bond is selling at a premium. Hence, the bond will be called at the earliest i.e. 15 years.
Coupon = Call Price * Semi-annual coupon rate = X * [0.08 / 2] = X * 0.04
Yield to call = 6% annually = 3% semi-annually
Time = 15 years * 2 = 30
We know that,
Current Price of bond = Coupon * [1 - (1 + YTC)-call date] / YTC + Call Price / (1 + YTC)call date
- 1,722.25 = [X * 0.04] * [1 - (1 + 0.03)-30] / 0.03 + [X / (1 + 0.03)30]
- 1,722.25 = [X * 0.04] * 19.60 + [X * 0.41]
- 1,722.25 = X * [(0.04 * 19.60) + 0.41]
- X = 1,722.25 / 1.194
-
X=$ 1,442.42 \approx $ 1,440
Answer:
By Focusing on Key Performing Indicators (KPIs)
Explanation:
Having large amounts of data has its <em>advantages</em> with give entities competitive advantages over rivals. These include the ability to satisfy a market need and establish changing trends in demand.
However, some firms <em>get lost in large data</em> and this is because of overwhelming amount of information and failure to focus on their industry`s Key Performance Indicators (KPIs).
Well here's what I can tell you,
The day the contributed property was purchased.
The day the partnership interest was acquired.
Either one of these are true which also means they are both true.
Answer:
d. Both a and b above are correct.
Explanation:
In the case when the company unadjusted trial balance reflect a debit balance of allowance for doubtful debts so this represent that the company would have more written off account receivable that would be shown in the beginning balance of the allowance. Also the company should record the bad debt expense as more as the debit balance of the non-adjusted allowance
Hence, the last option is correct
