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wolverine [178]
2 years ago
6

Titan Mining Corporation has 6.3 million shares of common stock outstanding, 220,000 shares of 3.6 percent preferred stock outst

anding, and 105,000 bonds with a semiannual coupon rate of 5.3 percent outstanding, par value of $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $73 per share and has a beta of 1.15, the preferred stock has a par value of $100 and currently sells for $83 per share, and the bonds have 17 years to maturity and sell for 107 percent of par. The market risk premium is 7.1 percent, T-bills are yielding 3.1 percent, and the company’s tax rate is 23 percent.
a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 4 decimal places, e.g., .1616.)

b. If the company is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Business
1 answer:
Shkiper50 [21]2 years ago
7 0

The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

a.

We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:

Market value of debt = MVD = 105,000*($1,000)*(1.07) = $25,750,000

Market value of preferred cost = MVP = 220,000*($83) = $18,260,000

Market value of equity = MVE = 6,300,000*($73) = $459,900,000

And the total market value of the firm is:

V = $25,750,000 + 18,260,000+ 459,900,000

V = $503,910,000

b.

So, the market value weights of the company's financing are:

D/V = $25,750,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0511

P/V = $18,260,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0362

E/V = $459,900,000/$503,910,000 = 0.9127

For projects equally as risky as the firm itself, the WACC should be used as the discount rate.

First, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

RE = .031 + 1.15(.071)

RE = 0.1030, or 10.03%

The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:

P0 = $1,070 = $26.50(PVIFAR%,34) + $1,000(PVIFR%,34)

R = 2.228%

YTM = 2.228% × 2

YTM = 4.46%

And the aftertax cost of debt is:

RD = (1 - .22)(.0446)

RD = .0348, or 3.48%

The cost of preferred stock is:

RP = $3.60/$73

RP = .0493, or 4.93%

Now we can calculate the WACC as:

WACC = 0.0511(.0348) + 0.0362(.0493) + 0.9127(.1003)

WACC =0.0933, or 9.33%

Hence, The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

Learn more about equity valuation:

brainly.com/question/17191274

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In deciding who should chair the wellness committee, several members identified Ian, a tall, handsome 40-ish staff accountant wi
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

a. Traits approach

Explanation:

It is correct to state that the committee members were operating under the leadership traits approach, which corresponds to the collective perception of an individual's personality through their personal characteristics that are outstanding and that make them stand out among other individuals.

As in the case of Ian, who was perceived by many members as a person with a lively sense of humor, as someone who would do a good job.

7 0
3 years ago
Bramble's Bakery makes a variety of home-style cookies for upscale restaurants in the Atlanta metropolitan area. The company's b
jolli1 [7]

Answer:

$15.51 per Double chocolate almond supreme

Explanation:

Calculate the standard cost for a pound of Mama Fran's double chocolate almond supreme cookies.

1. Standard Material Cost (Ratio Denominator = 10 +  5  + 1 = 16)

Std. Mat Cost = 10 Ounces /16  * $0.80   +   5 Ounces /16* $6  + 1/16* $18

Standard Material Cost = $3.5 per Double chocolate almond supreme

2. Standard Direct Labor Cost

Std. Labor Cost = 1 /60 Hours * $12.7 per Hour + 7/60 Hour * $19 per Hour

Std. Labor Cost = $2.4283 per Double chocolate almond supreme

3. Standard Variable Overhead Cost

Std. Variable OH. Cost = 6/60 Hours * $35.8

Standard Variable overhead cost = $3.58 per Double chocolate almond supreme

4. Standard Fixed Overhead Cost

Std. Fixed Overhead per cake = 6/60 Hours * $60 per Hour

Standard Fixed overhead cost = $6 per Double chocolate almond supreme

Now Standard cost for a pound is calculated as under:

Standard cost for a pound = 2.9375 + 2.4617 + 3.70 + 6

Standard cost for a pound = $15.51 per Double chocolate almond supreme

8 0
4 years ago
A company provided the following direct materials cost information. Compute the total direct materials cost variance. Standard c
lord [1]

Answer:

C. $78,250 Unfavorable.

Explanation:

We know,

Material cost variance = (Standard quantity × Standard price) - (Actual Quantity × Actual price)

Given,

Standard quantity = 405,000 units

Standard price = $2.00 unit

Actual Quantity = 403,750 units

Actual price = $2.20 unit

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

Material cost variance = (Standard quantity × Standard price) - (Actual Quantity × Actual price)

Material cost variance = (405,000 × $2.00) - (403,750  × $2.20)

Material cost variance = $810,000 - $888,250

Material cost variance = -78,250

Material cost variance = 78,250 (Unfavorable)

Therefore, C is the answer.

4 0
4 years ago
Any effort by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) to evaluate expected deceptive marketing practices would be seriously flawed be
Llana [10]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

This is true because the Federal Trade commission(FTC) analyze and investigate a seller or sellers who may be so cooperative as to make agreements that ensure large amounts of profit for them which is likely harmful and exploitative to consumers . FTC investigates business mergers which may be horizontal or vertical that are likely done for the purpose of increasing market share and fostering a sort of monopoly of the market. However, mergers and cooperation among businesses in the market do not always yield a monopoly and the FTC may be wrong(sometimes) to wave mergers that could increase the quality of goods or services in a market

7 0
3 years ago
In Chile, one worker can harvest 4 pounds of peppers or 4 pounds of coffee beans. In Argentina, one worker can harvest 2 pounds
Monica [59]

Chile- 4 pounds of coffee beans, Argentina - 16 pounds of coffee beans, is the correct solution of the question.

<h3>Explanation of the question?</h3>

It loses 4 pounds of coffee beans if one worker produces 4 pounds of peppers. As a result, if the worker produces 4 pounds extra peppers, 4 pounds of coffee beans will be lost. As a result, the opportunity cost of generating an additional 4 pounds of peppers for Chile is equal to 4 pounds of coffee beans.

Argentina's case:

It loses 8 pounds of coffee beans if one worker produces 2 pounds of peppers.

As a result, if the worker produces 1 pound of pepper, it loses = 8/2 = 4 pounds of coffee beans.

The worker will lose = 4 * 4 = 16 pounds of coffee beans if he produces 4 pounds of peppers.

As a result, the potential cost of producing an additional 4 pounds of peppers for Argentina is 16 pounds of coffee beans.

Thus, it is 4 pounds of coffee beans, Argentina - 16 pounds of coffee beans.

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8 0
2 years ago
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