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1 year ago

What does ! mean in a math problem?

2 answers:

7 0

Answer:
! is the symbol for factorial.

Reason:
n! is the product (multiplication) of all the numbers from n down to 1, inclusive, i.e. n × (n−1) × (n−2) × … × 2 × 1.

For example:

5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120

10! = 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 3,628,800

OR:
The there was a typo or a mistake that was made in the making of these questions.

Give this answer Brainliest!

Anton [14]1 year ago

5 0

! is shorthand for the factorial function. If $n$ is a non-negative integer, then

$n! = n\times(n-1)\times(n-2)\times\cdots3\times2\times1$

with $0! = 1$ .

So how to compute $n!$ ?

Multiply each number in sequence from that number to 1.

You might be interested in

B) Evaluate the algebraic expression 2x2 + 5x +6 if x is equal to (-1).

Korvikt [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

if x is equal to - 1

Then

2x² + 5x + 6

= 2* ( -1)² + 5 * (- 1) + 6

= 2 - 5 + 6

= 8 - 5

= 3

Hope it will help :)❤

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

a right trangle has one angle that measures 70 what is the measure of the other acute angle in the triangle

inna [77]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the interior angle measures of a triangle are <u>180,</u> and we are told that this is a <u>right</u> triangle.

Since we know the measure of two angles, we just have to do basic math:

180=90+70+x

solve for x (which equals 20) to get the measure of your acute angle

3 0

3 years ago

part of the population of 4,500 elk at a wildlife preserve is infected with a parasite a random sample of 50 elk shows that 8 of

REY [17]

Answer:

A total of 720 elk are likely to be infected

Step-by-step explanation:

we shall be using the proportion by survey to estimate the number of infections

From the survey 8 out of 50 are infected. Thus the likelihood of infection is 8/50

We have 4,500 elk to consider. The number of elk likely to be infected will be 8/50 * 4500 = 720

8 0

2 years ago

Choose ALL that apply:

Anni [7]

The executor of an estate handle the financial matters, D
They also handle the property and everything else owned by their deceased client. including the sortment or thier "will".

7 0

2 years ago

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$

therefore, for this questions we have:

$\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%$

4 0

2 years ago