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GaryK [48]
2 years ago
5

The __________ assures the payment of otherwise non-collectable court judgments against licensees who have committed fraud, misr

epresentation, deceit, or conversion of trust funds in a transaction.
Business
1 answer:
Finger [1]2 years ago
4 0

The SAFE act assures the payment of otherwise non-collectable court judgments against licensees who have committed fraud, misrepresentation, deceit, or conversion of trust funds in a transaction.

<h3>What is the SAFE act?</h3>

This was the act in the United States that made it mandatory for houses to be registered and licensed.

The act is based on houses that are used as residences. The full meaning of the act is the  Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act.

The main purpose of the SAFE act is to try to ensure that consumers are protected and also help in the reduction of fraud. This would be done by setting a standard for licensing and the originators of mortgage loans.

Hence the correct answer to the question is the SAFE act.

Read more on court judgement here; brainly.com/question/14077067

#SPJ1

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Hardwig Inc. is considering whether to pursue a restricted or relaxed current asset investment policy. The firm's annual sales a
skad [1K]

Answer:

c. 1.50%

Explanation:

The Hardwig, Inc is considering to pursue a relaxed or restricted current asset investment. We need to calculate the ROE for both the situations. The Net income in the both situation will be;

EBIT - Interest expense - Tax expense = Net Income

Restricted situation = $150,000 - 72,000 - 31,200 = $46,800

Relaxed situation = $150,000 - 81,818 - 27,273 = $40,909

ROE = Net income / equity

Relaxed situation = $40,909 / $818,180 = 5.00%

Restricted situation = $46,800 / $720,000 = 6.50%

The difference between both ROE = 1.50%

6 0
2 years ago
Russell Enterprises acquired a franchise from Michael Incorporated for $300,000. The franchise agreement is for a period of six
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

The reported book value of the franchise will be $200000

Explanation:

An intangible asset is an asset that lacks a physical substance. The value of an intangible asset is amortized just as the value of a tangible/physical asset is depreciated.

The straight line amortization charges a constant amortization expense through out the expected useful life of the intangible asset.

The formula to calculate the straight line amortization per year is,

Amortization expense per year = Cost / Expected Useful life

Amortization expense per year = 300000 / 6    = $50000 per year

The book value of an asset is the value after deducting the accumulated depreciation/amortization from the cost.

Book value = cost - accumulated depreciation or amortization

Book value = 300000 - (50000 * 2)     = $200000

5 0
3 years ago
Slimline and Distributor signed a contract providing that Distributor would use reasonable efforts to promote and sell Slimline’
Sveta_85 [38]

Answer: In this case,<em> </em><em><u>Slimline would win the case</u></em> because <u><em>Distributor's conduct and less inclination towards the product is breach of the contract.</em></u> Therefore Slimline sued Distributor, alleging a violation of the agreement.

Hence, in this case Slimline is more likely to win the case as it was asked of the distributor to use reasonable efforts to promote and sell Slimline’s diet drink.

3 0
3 years ago
During a​ year, a​ firm's gross investmentgross investment is ​$6 comma 0006,000 and net investmentnet investment is ​$4 comma 8
Greeley [361]

Answer: The answer is $1,200

Explanation:

In order to calculate the Depreciation, we use the formula:

Gross investment = Net Investment + Depreciation.

Let Depreciation be represented by x

Gross investment - $6,000

Net investment - $4,800.

Therefore, we have:

6,000 = 4,800 + x

x = 6,000 - 4,800

x = 1,200

Therefore Depreciation is $1,200

7 0
3 years ago
Serendipity Inc. is re-evaluating its debt level. Its current capital structure consists of 80% debt and 20% common equity, its
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

8.76%

Explanation:

Using the CAPM formula:

Ke = Rf + Beta Factor * Risk premium

Here

Rf is 5%,

Beta Factor is 1.6

And

Risk Premium is 6%

By putting values, we have:

Ke = 5% + 1.6 * 6%

Ke = 14.6%

Now we will find new firm's cost of equity under 40% debt by simply multiplying it with the equity percentage:

Weighted Cost of Equity = 14.6% * 60% = 8.76%

8 0
3 years ago
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