I believe the answer is D, correct me if i'm wrong :)
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
First, we have to compute the actual price
Actual price = Actual cost of material purchased × Actual material purchased
= $201,500 ÷ 10,200 metres
= $19.75
Therefore,
Material price variance
= Actual quantity × (Actual price - Standard price)
= 10,200 × ($19.75 - $19)
= 10,200 × $0.75
= $7,650 favourable
Bad debt expenses 800
Allowance for doubtful account 800
Allowance for doubtful accounts 60
Accounts receivable 60
Allowance for doubtful accounts 75
Accounts receivable 75
Accounts receivable 45
Allowance for doubtful accounts 45
Allowance for doubtful accounts 100
Accounts receivable 100
Accounts receivable 25
Allowance for doubtful accounts 25
Hope it helps!
Answer:
Explanation:
Double Declining balance method is the form of accelerated depreciation method, in which value of asset depreciated twice by the rate which is charged in straight line method.
Depreciable Cost = Cost of Asset - Residual value
Depreciable Cost = $46,250 - $2,800 = $43,450
Double-declining-balance rate = [ 2 x ( Cost of Asset - Residual value ) / Useful life ] / Cost of Asset
Double-declining-balance rate = [ 2 x $46250 / 5 ] / $46,250 = 40%
Double Declining balance depreciation for the first year = $46,250 x 40% = $18,500
If David retires at the age of 70, the last year he worked he earned $40,000. His replacement rate is: 50%.
<h3>Replacement rate</h3>
We would be using this formula to determine the replacement rate
Replacement rate=Social security payments/Amount earned last year ×100
Where:
Social security payments=$20,000
Amount earned last year=$40,000
Let plug in the formula
Replacement rate=$20,000/$40,000
Replacement rate=0.5×100
Replacement rate=50%
Therefore If David retires at the age of 70, the last year he worked he earned $40,000. His replacement rate is: 50%.
Learn more about replacement rate here:brainly.com/question/24259069
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