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Harlamova29_29 [7]
2 years ago
8

. If the company produces 5,000 fewer units than it sells in its second year of operations, will absorption costing net operatin

g income be higher or lower than variable costing net operating income in Year 2
Business
1 answer:
Rama09 [41]2 years ago
3 0

Net Operating Income on Year 2 will be lower than Year 1. The reason is the distribution of fixed production cost under absorption costing

<h3>What is absorption costing?</h3>

Total absorption costing is an accounting cost method that includes the entire cost of manufacturing or providing a service. TAC includes not only material and labor costs, but also all manufacturing overheads. Each cost center's cost can be direct or indirect.

Insurance and rent are two examples. Absorption costing is an inventory valuation, which means it is a capitalized cost that is tracked on the balance sheet until the product is sold rather than a regular expense.

The finance manager can use the absorption costing formula (materials + labor + variable production overhead + fixed production overhead) (number of completed units) to estimate how much production expenses the company may incur.

To know more about absorption costing follow the link:

brainly.com/question/26276034

#SPJ4

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actor Co. can produce a unit of product for the following costs: Direct material $ 8.60 Direct labor 24.60 Overhead 43.00 Total
leva [86]

Answer:

Relevant cost to make = Direct materials + Direct labor + Variable overhead

Relevant cost to make = $8.60 + $24.60 + $43.00 (1-60%)

Relevant cost to make = $8.60 + $24.60 + $17.20

Relevant cost to make = $50.40

Outside supplier cost ($48.40) < Relevant cost to make ($50.40). So, Factor should choose to buy because the relevent cost is less than outside supplier cost.

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3 years ago
 HELPPP ME
Serjik [45]

The answer for Blank 1: C. total value of the money supply

The answer for Blank 2: D. number of citizens.

GDP per capita describes the average economic output that a single citizens had produce in a certain year.

In order to calculate this, we need to find out the total value of the money supply by adding total Consumption, investments, Government spending, and net export. After this, we divide the total value of the money supply with the number of populations in a country to find the average economic output.


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Universal Foods issued 10% bonds, dated January 1, with a face amount of $260 million on January 1, 2018. The bonds mature on De
kondaur [170]

Answer:

The bonds were issued at $220,879,628.13

This is lower than the face value to compensate for the lower coupon payment.

cash               220,879,628.13   debit

discount on BP  39,120,371.87   debit

   bonds payable      260,000,000 credit

--to record the issuance of the bonds--

Interest expense 13,252,777.69 debit

Discoun on BP               252,777.69 credit

 cash          13,000,000      credit

--to record the first interest payment--

Interest expense 13,267,944.35 debit

        Discount on BP                267,944.35 credit

 Cash          13,000,000     credit

--to record second interest payment--

Interest expense 13,539,156.67 debit

Discount on BP              539,156.67 credit

cash                   13,000,000.00 credit

--to record Dec 31st, 2025 payment--

Explanation:

To determinate the price we will solve for the present value of the coupon payment and maturity at the market rate of %12

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Coupon payment:

260,000,000 x 10% x 1/2 =13,000,000.000

time 20 years x 2 payment per year 40

yield to maturity  12% / 2 = 6%

13000000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.06)^{-40} }{0.06} = PV\\

PV $195,601,859.3298

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   260,000,000.00

time   40.00

rate  0.06

\frac{260000000}{(1 + 0.06)^{40} } = PV  

PV   25,277,768.80

PV c $195,601,859.3298

PV m  $25,277,768.8042

Total $220,879,628.1340

For the journal entries, we will multiply this current market price of the bonds by the market rate (YTM) the difference between this and the actual cash obligation generate by the bond is the amortization of the discount.

<u>first interest payment </u>

$220,879,628.13 x 6% = 13,252,777.69

less actual cash outlay:  13,000,000

amortization                          252,777.69

<u>second interest payment</u>

($220,879,628.13- $252,777.69) x 6% = 13,267,944.35

less actual cash outlay:                      <u>     13,000,000.00</u>

amortization                                                   267,944.35

December 31st, 2025:

This will be payment 14th

after building the schedule until that date we got:

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If houston company billed a client for $18,000 of consulting work completed , the accounts receivable asset increases by $18,000
Pavlova-9 [17]
The answer is

Revenues increases by 18000
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Which of these is NOT an example of discharge for cause?
Shalnov [3]

Answer:

felonious conduct?

Explanation:

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