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vovangra [49]
2 years ago
11

__________ refers to phishing with a specific, high-value target in mind. for example, the attacker may target the president or

ceo of a company
Business
1 answer:
fgiga [73]2 years ago
6 0

Spear phishing refers to phishing with a specific, high-value target in mind. for example, the attacker may target the president or CEO of a company.

Spear phishing is frequently used in targeted attack campaigns to access a person's account, such as a high-ranking official or someone engaged in sensitive business operations. Scammers may obtain access to critical company information, banking or credit card information, and wire transfers once they have persuaded their victim that they are reliable.

For instance, a CEO fraud assault using spear-phishing techniques will target specific employees who are more likely to hear from the CEO. They frequently employ a sense of urgency to get a worker to comply immediately without first validating the requests made. To appear authoritative, they can imitate the CEO's speaking habits, make reference to well-known organizational events, or use hijacked email accounts.

Learn more about Spear phishing here:

brainly.com/question/24156548

#SPJ4

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Consider the following information about an asset that is being review for impairment: Book value $ 700,000 Estimate future cash
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

The amount of the impairment loss for this asset is <u>$110,000</u>

Explanation:

A assets is impaired when the fair market value of that assets lowers than the book value of the asset.

To calculate the impairment of an assets following formula is used

Impairent = Book value of Asset -  fair market value of the asset

Placing values in the formula

Impairent = $700,000 -  $590,000

Impairent = <u>$110,000</u>

3 0
3 years ago
You hurt your back at work by falling of a ladder and are out of work for a month
elixir [45]

Answer:

Uh, of course I'm not at work! I brutally broke my back. Ouch.

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is NOT a valid method of modifying cash flows to produce a​ MIRR? A. Turn multiple negative cash flows in
faltersainse [42]

Answer: the correct answer is A. Turn multiple negative cash flows into a single negative cash flow by summing all negative cash flows over the​ project's lifetime.

Explanation: MIRR stands for Modified Internal rate of return. If you add up all negative cash flows in just one  you are not taking into account a very important variable which is "time". It is not the same if you have a negative cash flow in 2 years than in 5 years.

4 0
3 years ago
Which process in service operation contributes to continual service improvement?
kaheart [24]
Having a good credit score
8 0
2 years ago
You have borrowed $28,000 at an interest rate of 12% compounded annually. Equal payments will be made over a four-year period, w
Sloan [31]

Answer:

A = 28000 [\frac{0.12 (1.12)^4}{(1.12)^4 -1}]

A = 28000 [\frac{0.12*1.574}{1.574-1}]

A=28000*0.3292 = 9218.564

So then the annual pay would be $ 9218.564 for this case

Explanation:

For this question we can use the Equivalent annual value (A) given by the following expression:

A = PV [\frac{i (1+i)^t}{(1+i)^t -1}]

Where PV = 28000 represent the pesent value

i = 0.12 since the rate is yearly

t = 4 since we have 4 years to pay

So then we have everything to replace and we got:

A = 28000 [\frac{0.12 (1.12)^4}{(1.12)^4 -1}]

A = 28000 [\frac{0.12*1.574}{1.574-1}]

A=28000*0.3292 = 9218.564

So then the annual pay would be $ 9218.564 for this case

And this amount would be paid each year in order to pay all the money after 4 years.

6 0
3 years ago
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