Answser: first option <span>350(0.95)^x + 30x - 350
Explanation:
You can figure out the </span><span>function that shows the difference in price between option 1 and option 2 if you make a table simulating the behavior for a few months:
month price as per option 1 price as per option 2
start 350 350
1 350 - 5% (350) = 350 - 30
= 350 (0,95)
2 350 (0,95)×(0,95) =
350 (0,95)² 350 - 30(2)
3 350 (0,95)³ 350 - 30(3)
So now you can figure out the price with each option after x months:
350 (0.95)ˣ 350 - 30x
And the difference is 350 (0.95)ˣ - [350 - 30x]
Which, expanding the square brackets, is 350 (0.95)ˣ + 30x - 350 ↔ the first option.
</span>
Answer:
8 bunches
Step-by-step explanation:
4/8 9/18
Answer:
96x^2 - 108 - 663
Step-by-step explanation:
(8x + 17)(12x - 39)
96x^2 - 312x + 204x -663
96x^2 - 108 - 663
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
#SPJ1
I believe OD. 154in i’m not sure though
