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k0ka [10]
1 year ago
14

5. If 15 men can finish a work in 16 days in how many days will 8 men can finish the same work? a. 15 b. 20 c. 30 d. 42​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Gnom [1K]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

C. 30

Step-by-step explanation:

15 men do work in 16 days

This means that 7.5 men (15/2) would do that same work in 32 days (16x2).

If the number of men increase, the amount of days decrease.

8 men would do that work in 30 days

8 men > 7.5 men

30 days < 32 days

mars1129 [50]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

Option c.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is an inverse proportion, fewer workers more days to finish the job.

15 -----16

8 ----- x

x = (16)(15)/8 = 240/8 = 30 days

Hope this helps

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3 years ago
A particle moves on a circle through points which been marked 0,1,2,3,4 (in a clockwise order). At each step it has a probabilit
Sedaia [141]

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given data:

SS={0,1,2,3,4}

Let probability of moving to the right be = P

Then probability of moving to the left is =1-P

The transition probability matrix is:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}1&P&0&0&0\\1-P&1&P&0&0\\0&1-P&1&P&0\\0&0&1-P&1&P\\0&0&0&1-P&1\end{array}\right]

Calculating the limiting probabilities:

π0=π0+Pπ1                 eq(1)

π1=(1-P)π0+π1+Pπ2     eq(2)

π2=(1-P)π1+π2+Pπ3    eq(3)

π3=(1-P)π2+π3+Pπ4    eq(4)

π4=(1-P)π3+π4             eq(5)

π0+π1+π2+π3+π4=1

π0-π0-Pπ1=0

→π1 = 0

substituting value of π1  in eq(2)

(1-P)π0+Pπ2=0

from

π2=(1-P)π1+π2+Pπ3  

we get

(1-P)π1+Pπ3 = 0

from

π3=(1-P)π2+π3+Pπ4

we get

(1-P)π2+Pπ4 =0

from π4=(1-P)π3+π4  

→π3=0

substituting values of π1 and π3 in eq(3)

→π2=0

Now

π0+π1+π2+π3+π4=0

π0+π4=1

π0=0.5

π4=0.5

So limiting probabilities are {0.5,0,0,0,0.5}

4 0
3 years ago
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