Answer:
The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.
Explanation:
A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).
So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.
The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.
- Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
- Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
- Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
Answer:
27.3%
Explanation:
rate of retun on assets:
where:
Net income: 112,000
2018 Assets: 410,000
$Assets rate of return 0.2731707317073171 = 27.32%
During 2018 each dollar of assets generate 27.32 cents of income.
Answer:
a. It is important to strike a balance between objectivity and positivity in a report.
Explanation:
A standard business report should be well-researched, objective, and presented in a formal format. The facts should be clear. Data presented must verifiable.
Objectivity is crucial in a business report. The business report should be framed from the company's perspective. The report must remain impersonal. For example, if the sales for the year dropped, don't say the sales were horrible. Let the numbers speak for themselves. Objectivity requires information to be presented as is; without any manipulations.
The choice of words and phrases is critical in business reporting. Caution should be taken, especially if the performance is below expectations. A poorly worded statement may send investors into a panic mode, which can affect share prices adversely. Positivity in words and body language help increase investor confidence.
Answer:
a. Assuming that fixed payments are to be made monthly for three years and that the loan is fully amortizing, what will be the monthly payments? What will be the loan balance after three years?
- monthly payment = $997.95
- principal balance after 36th payment = $145,090.59
b. What would new payments be beginning in year 4 if the interest rate fell to 6 percent and the loan continued to be fully amortizing?
- monthly payment = $905.34
c. In (a) what would monthly payments be during year 1 if they were interest only? What would payments be beginning in year 4 if interest rates fell to 6 percent and the loan became fully amortizing?
a. $875
b. $935.98
Explanation:
A 3/1 adjustable rate mortgage is a 30 year mortgage where the interest rate is fixed for the first 3 years, and then it can vary.
I prepared an amortization schedule that shows the first 3 payments with a 7% interest rate and then the rest of the payments will carry a 6% interest rate.
The monthly payment for the first 36 months is $997.95 (principal balance after 36th payment $145,090.59), then it decreases to $905.34 per month.
See amortization schedule 1
if the monthly payments only covered interest expenses during the first 3 years, they would be $150,000 x 7%/12 = $875
then the monthly payments would be $935.98.
See amortization schedule 2
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