Answer:
think.....all you have to do is think XD
but in all honesty the answer is a determine your descision
This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
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Answer:
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
As per the UNICAP (stands for Uniform Capitalization) rules, the person have to capitalize the cost for creating the assets, which means or defines as to capitalize the raw materials, labor cost and other indirect as well as direct costs that is attributable to the production of the assets.
So, the costs which is to be capitalized in respect to inventory are the repacking cost, which is involved in the indirect supplies and other materials and the off site storage cost is involves in the rental of the facilities and equipment.
Answer:
It can purchase at most, $18.13 per share.
Or 72.52 millions for the total 4,000,000 shares
Explanation:
We are given with the present value of the merger at Craftworks discount rate. The shares can be purchase at most at the same level of the present value of the increase in the free cash flow.
That way, the net present value will be zero and the merger will yield the 16% required.
72,520,000 Millions
4,000,000 shares outstanding
price per share 18.13
The crafworks shares can be purchase at most for 18.13 above this, it would yield the 16% required
Currently the share are at 16.25 so it could be possible to do the take-over
