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Alja [10]
1 year ago
11

Why is

m_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{ln x}" alt="lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{ln x}" align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula"> equal to infinity, but \lim_{x \to -\infty}\frac{2^x}{x^2} is equal to 0?
Mathematics
1 answer:
aleksklad [387]1 year ago
8 0

The first limit is infinity since x>\ln(x) for all x>0.

The second limit is zero since 2^x converges to 0 as x\to-\infty, while x^2 is very large and positive.

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