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Alja [10]
2 years ago
11

Why is

m_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{ln x}" alt="lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{ln x}" align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula"> equal to infinity, but \lim_{x \to -\infty}\frac{2^x}{x^2} is equal to 0?
Mathematics
1 answer:
aleksklad [387]2 years ago
8 0

The first limit is infinity since x>\ln(x) for all x>0.

The second limit is zero since 2^x converges to 0 as x\to-\infty, while x^2 is very large and positive.

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Nitella [24]

Answer:

i)x=0,x=1

ii)

\frac{2}3} + \frac{\sqrt{40} }{6}  \\\frac{2}3}-\frac{\sqrt{40} }{6}

Step-by-step explanation:

so I did not use the graphs actually.

for the answer to question i), i wrote out the equation as given:

3x^2-3x+2=2

then, i subtracted the two from the right side of the equation to make the equation set equal to 0, and I got:

3x^2-3x+2-2=+2-2, which becomes 3x^2-3x=0

then, I used the quadratic method of taking out the greatest common factor, which in this case is 3x, and the equation becomes:

3x(x-1)=0

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now for the second equation, I had no other choice but to use the quadratic formula to find the solutions.

so I set up the quadratic formula as shown:

\frac{-(-4)+ or -\sqrt{(9-4)^2)-4(-2)(3)} }{2(3)}

from there the equation gets simplified down to:

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simplifying the formula even further gives us:

\frac{4+ or -\sqrt{40} }{6}

if we simplify the equation one last time, we get:

\frac{2}{3} + or -\frac{\sqrt{40} }{6}

therefore, the solutions to this equation are:

\frac{2}{3} +\frac{\sqrt{40} }{6}\\ \frac{2}{3} - \frac{\sqrt{40} }{6}

8 0
3 years ago
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