I think it's a cashier's check...(Don't mark my words)
Answer:
$0.3 per machine hour
Explanation:
The computation of the variable maintenance cost per machine hour using the high low method is shown below:
Variable cost per machine hour = (High maintenance cost - low maintenance cost) ÷ (High machine hours - low machine hours)
= ($9,000 - $7,200) ÷ (20,000 machine hours - 14,000 machine hours)
= $1,800 ÷ 6,000 machine hours
= $0.3 per machine hour
Answer:
The correct answers are the following:
a - 4 Sunk
b - 5 Opportunity
c - 3 Fixed
d - 2 Variable
e - 6 Incremental
f - 1 Recurring
g - 7 Direct
h - 8 Non-recurring
Explanation:
a) <em>Sunk costs</em> are those that have already occurred in the past and they can not be recovered again so therefore that they are not relevant at the time of taking decisions regarding the futue.
b) <em>Opportunity costs</em> are those that try to measure and show the sacrifice done at the time of making a decision when that sacrifice represents the best second option that the person could have done.
c) <em>Fixed costs</em> are those that are always the same amount and do not change with the activity level of the production of the company.
d) <em>Variable costs</em> are those that do change with the amount of activity level that the company has during the production process.
e)<em> Incremental costs</em> are those that increase the cost level of the production while the output level increases as well, so they are a concept on the margin.
f) <em>Recurring costs</em> are those that tend to repete continously in the production process so the company already know how much the amount of the cost is.
g) <em>Direct costs</em> are those that the company associates with the production process regarding the commodities and all the primary sources that are needed to produce the good and therefore that they impact directly in the production and in the cost of the final product.
h) <em>Non-recurring</em> costs are those that the company are not familiar with due to the fact that they do not repete often and therefore tend to happen once in a while.
Answer:
$338,712
Explanation:
we must first calculate the monthly payment using the present value of an annuity formula:
present value = monthly payment x annuity factor
present value = $340,000
PV annuity factor, 0.529167%, 420 periods = 168.38268
monthly payment = $340,000 / 168.38268 = $2,019.21
Since the monthly payment was actually higher than $1,800, the balloon payment will be almost $340,000
I prepared an amortization schedule using an excel spreadsheet. During the first years, the principal is only decreasing by $1 each month
Answer:
D. You shop around and buy a pair of the exact same designer jeans at a thrift shop, and they cost virtually nothing.
Explanation:
Good money burn refers to the effective use of money, rather than just spending it on some useless stuff.
Here in the given instance the following is the explanation for the given instance:
Option A states that the jeans is just bought for completing the desire, it does not have any difference in the product even if the product can be bought on sale after some days.
Option B is still better than the first day.
Further in option c buying the jeans without any label might not be a good decision as it might have poor quality.
Option D is the best as it is the same jeans but at the least possible cost.
