Answer:
In 2017
Net Income and Retained Earning are overstated by $100,000
Expenses and Payables are understated by $100,000.
In 2018
Inventory, Net Income and Retained Earning are understated by $57,000
Expenses are overstates by $57,000
Explanation:
Accrued Salaries is Recorded as follow
Dr. Salaries Expense
Cr. Salaries Payament
Non recording of this entry will result in understatement of Expenses and Payables by $100,000 over statement of Net income and retained earning by the same amount.
Treatment of Office supplies of $57,000 as expense will overstate the expenses and understate the the inventory, Net income and Retained Earning.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the effective annual rate in each of the following cases are
1.
Effective annual rate = [(1+annual percentage rate ÷ period)^period]- 1
= (1 +0 .09 ÷ 4)^4 - 1
= 9.31%
2.
Effective annual rate = [(1+annual percentage rate ÷ period)^period]- 1
= (1 + 0.16 ÷ 12)^12-1
= 17.23%
3.
Effective annual rate = [(1+annual percentage rate ÷ period)^period]- 1
= (1 + 0.12 ÷ 365)^365-1
= 12.75%
4 .
Effective annual rate = [(e)^Annual percentage rate]-1
e=2.71828
So,
=[(2.71828)^0.11]-1
= 11.63%
Answer:
B) cognitive dissonance
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various psychologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question his attitude change is best explained by cognitive dissonance. This is defined as the state of having inconsistent thoughts, beliefs, or attitudes, especially as relating to behavioral decisions and attitude change. Which is exactly what Fernando is experiencing.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
If you need to indicate the missing ammount of each letter in the grahp then it will be like follows:
For the first case:
A = $9,600 + $5,000 + $8,000 = $22,600$22,600 + $1,000 – B = $17,000
B = $22,600 + $1,000 – $17,000 = $6,600$17,000 + C = $20,000
C = $20,000 – $17,000 = $3,000
D = $20,000 – $3,400 = $16,600
<span>E = ($24,500 – $2,500) – $16,600 = $5,400
</span><span>F = $5,400 – $2,500 = $2,900
</span>And now for the second case:
G + $8,000 + $4,000 = $16,000
G = $16,000 – $8,000 – $4,000 = $4,000$16,000 + H – $3,000 = $22,000
H = $22,000 + $3,000 – $16,000 = $9,000(I – $1,400) – K = $7,000(I – $1,400) – $22,800 = $7,000
<span>I = $1,400 + $22,800 + $7,000 = $31,200
</span>J = $22,000 + $3,300 = $25,300
K = $25,300 – $2,500 = $22,800$7,000 – L = $5,000
<span>L = $2,000</span>
Answer:
d. 5.08%
Explanation:
We have to first calculate the YTM of the bond, and then apply the tax shield.
To get the YTM we have to calculate the rate of return of an annuity of 46.25 for 20 years compounding semiannually at IRR rate and the present value of the face value redeem in 20 years.
IRR = 0.084656891 (it should be done using financial calculator or excel or a similar software program)
then we apply the shield tax to the IRR:
IRR x (1 - tax-rate) = Cost of debt
0.084656891 * ( 1 - 0.4) = 5.0794= 5.08
