Answer: Cash flow from financing activities (CFF) is a section of a company's cash flow statement, which shows the net flows of cash that are used to fund the company. Financing activities include transactions involving debt, equity, and dividends.
Explanation:
e. $0
SEP PLANS ONLY PERMITS EMPLOYER CONTRIBUTIONS.FOR A SELF -EMPLOYED INDIVIDUAL,CONTRIBUTIONS ARE LIMITED TO 25% OF YOUR NET EARNINGS FROM SELF-EMPLOYMENT (NOT INCLUDING CONTRIBUTIONS FOR YOURSELF) UP TO $57,000 (FOR 2020) ; $56,000 FOR 2019.
Answer:
Is out of the money
Explanation:
A strike price is a particular price which if activated, derivative contracts can be sold or bought. Derivatives are considered as products in finance where underlying assets are major determinants of their value.
The stock price is considered as the current price that a share of stocks is sold and bought on the market.
Because the strike price is $65 and the stock price (market price) is $60, Disney is out of money and cannot be exercised profitably.
The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Using this formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(Wa-RFR )×SDB²]-[(Wb-RFR)×SDA×SDB×CC] ÷ [(Wa-RFR )×SDB²+(Wb-RFR)SDA²]- [(Wa-RFR +Wb-RFR )×SDA×SDB×CC]
Where:
Stock A Expected Return (Wa) =16%
Stock A Standard Deviation (SDA)= 18.0%
Stock B Expected Return (Wb)= 12%
Stock B Standard Deviation(SDB) = 3%
Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B (CC) = 0.50
Risk Free rate of return(RFR) = 10%
Let plug in the formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(.16-.10)×.03²]-[(.12-.10)×.18×.03×0.50]÷ [(.16-.10 )×.03²+(.12-.10)×.18²]- [(.16-.10 +.12-.10 )×.18×.03×0.50]
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=(0.000054-0.000054)÷(0.000702-0.000216)
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0÷0.000486×100%
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0%
Inconclusion the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
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