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chubhunter [2.5K]
2 years ago
8

Jackson is buying a home for $412,000. his interest rate on the loan will be 4.75or 15 years. he will have a down payment of $16

,480. what is the ltv on the loan?
Business
1 answer:
Ipatiy [6.2K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

96%

Explanation:

Value of the home: $412,000-Down Payment $16,480 = $395,520

Formula for LTV(Loan to Value Ratio): Loan Amount / Appraised Property Value

LTV: $395,520/$412,000 = 0.96 or 96%

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Feature of deligation of authority​
Oksanka [162]

Answer:

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Explanation:

Uhm what? is this the full question?

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3 years ago
which of the following is not typically involved in rescheduling activities of a troubled sovereign loan? group of answer choice
Margarita [4]

Shortening the repayment schedule is not typically involved in rescheduling activities of a troubled sovereign loan.

Governments of independent political entities can issue debt, typically in the form of securities, known as sovereign debt.

Unique risks associated with sovereign debt are not present in other forms of lending.

The creditworthiness of sovereign debtors and the securities they issue is frequently rated by a number of private agencies.

Economies and political systems that are stable are often seen as having better credit risks, enabling them to borrow on more favorable terms.

Governments incur sovereign debt through the issuance of bonds, notes, and other debt instruments as well as by the borrowing of funds from other nations and international institutions like the International Monetary Fund.

Foreign currencies as well as domestic ones may be used to pay off sovereign debt, which may be due to outsiders or to the nation's own population.

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8 0
1 year ago
Multiple Choice Question 71 Boswell Company manufactures two products, Regular and Supreme. Boswell’s overhead costs consist of
seropon [69]

Answer:

Allocated MOH=  $5,250,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Overhead costs:

Machining = $5,000,000

Assembling= $2,500,000

Regular:

Direct labor hours= 10,000

Machine hours= 10,000

Number of parts= 90,000

Supreme:

Direct labor hours= 15,000

Machine hours= 30,000

Number of parts= 160,000

First, we need to calculate the estimated overhead rate for each department. For Machining, we will use the machine hours. For Assembling, we will use the direct labor hours.

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

<u>Machining:</u>

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 5,000,000/ (10,000 + 30,000)= $125 per machine hour

<u>Assembling:</u>

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate=  2,500,000/(25,000)= $100 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead to supreme.

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= (125*30,000) + (100*15,000)= $5,250,000

6 0
3 years ago
If a firm favors a push strategy, using direct selling to educate potential consumers about the features of its products, what k
BigorU [14]

Answer:

industrial products

Explanation:

A company that does this and mostly favors a push strategy is usually selling industrial products. That is because a push strategy focuses on taking the product to the potential customer and showing them how it works as well as how it can benefit them, therefore pushing the product on them. Industrial Products are great for such a strategy since they require actual demonstration and can easily show the potential customer the actual value that the product can provide.

3 0
3 years ago
The Carbondale Hospital is considering the purchase of a new ambulance. The decision will rest partly on the anticipated mileage
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

a. Year 6 Forecast = 3,775

b. Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. Year 6 Forecast = 3,780

Explanation:

Given

The miles driven during the past 5 years are as​ follows

Year 1 -- 3,100

Year 2 --- 4,050

Year 3 --- 3,450

Year 4 ---- 3,750

Year 5 --- 3,800

a. The forecast for year 6 is calculated as follows;

Using a 2 year moving average

Forecast = ½(Year 4 + Year 5)

Forecast = ½(3750 + 3800)

Forecast = ½ * 7550

Forecast = 3,775

b. Calculating the Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD), if two years moving average is used.

------------------------------2 year difference ----- Difference

Year 1 -- 3,100 ------------------------------------------

Year 2 --- 4,050 -----------------------------------------

Year 3 --- 3,450 ---- 3,575 -------- 125

Year 4 ---- 3,750 ---- 3,750 ------ 0

Year 5 --- 3,800 ----- 3,600 ------ 200

The 2-year difference column is calculated using.

Summation of previous 2 years forecast * ½

Year 1 and 2 are empty because they don't have previous 2 years.

For year 3;

2 year difference = ½ (year 1 + year 2)

= ½(3,100 + 4,050)

= ½ (7,150)

= 3,575

For year 4

2 year difference = ½ (year 2 + year 3)

= ½(4,050 + 3,750)

= ½ (7,500)

= 3,750

For year 5:

2 year difference = ½ (year 3 + year 4)

= ½(3,750 + 3,450)

= ½ (7,200)

= 3,600

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (Summation of Difference)/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = (125 + 0 + 200)

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 325/3

Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) = 108.3

c. for year 6 using a weighted​ 2-year moving average with weights of 0.40 and 0.60

For year 5:

Forecast = 0.4 * year 4 + 0.6 * year 5

= 0.4(3,750) + 0.6(3,800)

= 3,780

5 0
4 years ago
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