Answer:
Explanation:
The pictures attached shows the full explanation
Answer:
C. $12,000
Explanation:
additional earnigns for active management:
800,000 x 0.02% = 16,000
<em><u>expected </u></em>active management cost:
800,000 x 0.5% = 4,000
net gain: 12,000
At most, we can spend 12,000 dollars.
Up to this point, the expense are cover by the additional return. bove this threshold the fund will incur in losses from the active management
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The actual amount of the decrease in foreign investment is less than 100% therefore, if foreign investment fell by 100%, it would be cut in half. Apparently, a decrease of 200% means that it would be totally eliminated, and a decrease of more than 200% is impossible.The the statement does not mention the initial amount of foreign investment.
Answer:
a. Total liabilities = $280,000
b. Total liabilities = $250,000
Total equity -= $250,000
Explanation:
As we know that
Total assets = Total liabilities + shareholder equity
So in the first case
The amount of the liabilities is
Total liabilities = Total assets - Total equity
= $700,000 - $420,000
= $280,000
And, in the second case, the total assets is $500,000
And, the liabilities and equity amounts are equal to each other
So in this case, the liabilities is $250,000 and the equity is $250,000
Answer:
$680
Explanation:
Calculation to determine What would be the depreciation expense for the first year of its useful life using the double-declining-balance method
Depreciation expense=3400*(100%/10 * 2)
Depreciation expense=3400*.2
Depreciation expense= 680
Therefore What would be the depreciation expense for the first year of its useful life using the double-declining-balance method is $680
