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prohojiy [21]
2 years ago
7

A runner can jog at a rate of 4 miles per hour uphill. Downhill, he can run 3 miles in the same time it takes him to run 2 miles

uphill. How long would it take to run 2 miles uphill and then 3 miles downhill?
what is the most important variable?
Mathematics
2 answers:
densk [106]2 years ago
6 0
The answer to this question is very intriguing but I would have to say it is unsolvable. have a good day

olga nikolaevna [1]2 years ago
3 0
The most important variable is 4 miles per hour up hill. Down hill he can run 3 miles in the same time it takes time to run uphill.  up hill 4 miles  1 hour  so 2 miles up hill is 1/2 hour.  Down hill he can run 3 miles in the same time it takes time to run up hill..  2 miles up hill - 1/2 hour.  So 1/2 hr up and 1/2 hr down = 1 hour. 
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300/28 in simplest form
lesantik [10]

<u><em>Answer:</em></u>

The reduced form of  

300 /28  is  75 /7

<u><em>Steps to simplifying fractions: </em></u>

Find the GCD (or HCF) of numerator and denominator

GCD of 300 and 28 is 4

Divide both the numerator and denominator by the GCD

300 ÷ 4

28 ÷ 4

<em><u>Reduced fraction:  </u></em>

75 /7

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
i put 12 gallons of gas in my car. each gallon was $5.15. there was also 9% tax. what was the total i paid?
wariber [46]
Steps:
5.15*1.09*12 = total

5.6135*12 = total

$67.36= total

Answer: $67.36
4 0
2 years ago
1.6022x 10-19 round three decimal places
den301095 [7]

Answer:

1.6022x 10-19

Step-by-step explanation:

1.6022x 10-19 then simplifies into 16.022 because of the 10, and then the final answer is -2.978

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
--2m + 4n2 for m = -6 and n=-5<br> Evaluate the expression
Tamiku [17]

Answer: 112

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we were given m and n, we plug them into the expression and solve.

-2(-6)+4(-5)²            [exponent]

-2(-6)+4(25)            [multiply]

12+100                     [add]

112

Now, we know that the value of the expression is 112.

7 0
2 years ago
Help with multi step inequalities please
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

B. The solution is valid because all steps to solve the inequality for F are correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

F - 32 ≤ 0

Add 32 to both sides of the equation to have;

F -32 + 32 ≤ 0 + 32

F ≤ 0 + 32

F ≤ 32

It can be observed that to solve for F, the steps are correct. Thus the solution is valid. Therefore, the correct choice in the given question is the solution is valid because all steps to solve the inequality for F are correct.

5 0
3 years ago
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