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STALIN [3.7K]
2 years ago
6

covid-19 pandemic of 2020, e-tronics began weighing options for controlling or cutting costs due to lower revenue and profitabil

ity. senior leadership has requested hr to conduct an analysis and come back with the best way to manage their human capital costs. hr leaders know that from the most recent engagement survey, 7% of the workforce indicated they are ready to retire in the next 1–3 years. given this information, what is the best option to pursue?
Business
1 answer:
Oxana [17]2 years ago
6 0

According to the information given in the question,  the best option to pursue would be early retirement.

Early Retirement presents a handy and exceptional way for assembly expectancies of a reduction in force (RIF). A reduction in force (RIF) takes place whilst a function is eliminated with no intention of changing it and effects an everlasting cut in headcount. A corporation may additionally decide to lessen its staff by means of terminating employees or by means of attrition

RIF occurs whilst a company completely eliminates positions. It is distinct from a furlough, wherein an employee's hours are quickly reduced. In the Federal government, layoffs are referred to as a reduction in force movements. When an agency should abolish positions, the reduction in force policies decides whether or not an employee keeps his or her gift position, or whether the employee has a proper to an extraordinary role.

Personnel reduction is a movement to lessen the range of personnel in a branch or in the County typical. Motives for a discount in force may additionally encompass, however, aren't constrained to reduced funding, reorganization, and/or modified workload.

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You might be interested in
Assume that over the past 88 years, u. S. Treasury bills had an average return of 3. 5 percent as compared to 6. 1 percent on lo
zheka24 [161]

The average nominal risk premium on the long-term government bonds was 2.6 percent.

A risk premium is the expected investment return on an asset that is higher than the risk-free rate of return. The risk premium on an asset is a form of compensation for investors. It compensates investors for tolerating the additional risk in a given investment over that of a risk-free asset. Subtracting the return on risk-free investment from the return on investment yields the risk premium.

The nominal risk premium is:

Nominal Risk-Free Rate - Inflation Premium = Real Risk-Free Rate. Nominal rates are the rates we encounter on a daily basis, such as interest rates from banks and other financial institutions.

Nominal risk premium = 6.1 % -3.5 %

= 2.6%.

Learn more about risk premium here-

brainly.com/question/15570868

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8 0
1 year ago
A client presents with chief complaints of unexplained weight gain and back pain from a compression fracture of the vertebrae. O
kozerog [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is Cushing's Syndrome.

Explanation:

Cushing's syndrome, also known as hypercortisolism, is a disease caused by the increase in the hormone cortisol. This excess cortisol can be caused by various causes. The most common, which affects 60 or 70% of patients, is an adenoma in the pituitary gland; This form of the syndrome is specifically known as Cushing's disease. Other causes of Cushing's syndrome are tumors or abnormalities in the adrenal glands, chronic glucocorticoid use or excessive ACTH production caused by a pituitary adenoma. ACTH is the hormone, produced by the pituitary gland, that stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. This disorder was described by the American neurosurgeon doctor Harvey Cushing, who reported it in 1932.

5 0
3 years ago
Explain corporate bond interest in terms of cost of capital versus investor yields. also, explain the municipal bond interest in
astraxan [27]

A sort of financial product sold to investors is a corporate bond, which is issued by a business. The investor receives a predetermined amount of interest payments at either a fixed or variable interest rate in exchange for providing the firm with the money it requires.

The bond "reaches maturity" when it stops making payments and the initial investment is refunded.

The ability of the corporation to repay the bond often serves as its security, and this ability is based on its expectations for future revenues and profitability. Physical assets of the corporation may occasionally be utilized as collateral.

A state, municipality, or county may issue municipal bonds as a debt security to pay for capital projects like building roads, bridges, or schools. They can be compared to loans given to local governments by investors.

Municipal bonds are particularly appealing to those in higher income tax brackets because they are frequently exempt from federal taxes and the majority of state and local taxes (for residents).

To learn more about Corporate Bond and Municipal Bonds here

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7 0
2 years ago
Arjen owns investment A and 1 bond B. The total value of his holdings is 1,529 dollars. Investment A is expected to pay annual c
zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

In order to find the present value of the bond we have to calculate the present value of investment A and subtract is from 1529. We can find the present value of A by discounting all its cash flows.

As the first cash flow is received today and the last will be received 3 years form now there will be a total of 4 cash flows

1) 218.19 (Will not be discounted as we are receiving it today in the present)

2) 218.19/1.0987 (Discount by 1 year as cash will be received in 1 year)

3) 218.19/1.0987^2 (Discount by 2 years as cash will be received in 2 years)

4) 218.19/ 1.0987^3 (Discount by 3 years as cash will be received in 3 years)

= 218.19 + 198.58 + 180.74+ 164.51 = 762.02

PV of Bond = 1529-762.09= 766.91

Semi annual coupons mean 2 payments a year. Bond B matures in 23 years which means a total of 46 payments (23*2). N=46. A coupon rate of 6.4 percent means that the bond pays $64 (0.064*1000) each year. $64 divided by 2 is 32 which is the amount of each semi annual payment Arjen receives. Pv= 766.91 FV = 1000

In a financial calculator put

PV= -766.91

N= 46

FV=1000

PMT= 32

and compute I

I is 4.38 and we will multiply it by 2 because the payments are semi annual. So we will get an I of 8.76

YTM= 0.0876

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
ABC Corporation distributes property to its sole shareholder, Andre. The property has a fair market value of $350,000, an adjust
saul85 [17]

Answer:

ABC has a gain of $145,000 and Andre's dividend income is $130,000

Explanation:

Property ABC issued, has the following:

fair market value = $350,000

Adjusted basis = $205,000

Liability = $220,000

Calculate ABC's Corporation gain:

Gain = market value - Adjusted basis

= $350,000 - $205,000

= $145,000

ABC has a gain of $145,000

Calculate Andre's dividend income since he is the sole shareholder:

Dividend earnings = fair market value - liability

= $350,000 - $220,000

= $130,000

Andre's dividend income is $130,000

Correct option is D.

With respect to distribution, ABC has a gain of $145,000 and Andre's dividend income is $130,000

8 0
3 years ago
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