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Aleonysh [2.5K]
2 years ago
11

PLS ANSWER. The questions is attached. Dont' put like I dont' know the answer if u don't know don't answer pls.

Mathematics
1 answer:
jekas [21]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

x = 2.4

Step-by-step explanation:

see image for explanation.

Hope it helps

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The object depicted by the force diagram is​
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

a) At rest

Step-by-step explanation:

25N+25N=50N

therefore, 50N is applied from both the sides

So, 50N - 50N = 0

the, net value is zero, here.

Hope it helps you in understanding!

Mark my answer brainliest!

Follow me!

Give me a heart if u like the answer!

5 0
3 years ago
Hi can anyone do this for me please do it on a piece of paper
Vsevolod [243]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  see attached

Step-by-step explanation:

We don't know the drivers' names or when or where they started. We have made the assumption that the second equation pertains to Kylie.

Each line is plotted with the appropriate slope and y-intercept. The slope is the coefficient of x, and represents the "rise" for each unit of "run" to the right.

8 0
3 years ago
Need help pls geometry question
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

sin 45 = x/12

x = 12 sin 45

x = 6√(2)

answer is D

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Plssss hellpppppp meeeeeeeww
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

When the numerators are the same, the denominator that is bigger has a lesser value. In this case, the inequality > shows that \frac{1}{10} is bigger than the fraction next to it so in order to find a fraction that is lesser in value than  \frac{1}{10}, we need to find a denominator that is <u>more than 10</u>, since 10 is the denominator of the first fraction. The only number more than 10 in the options is 12, so 12 is the answer.

7 0
3 years ago
Matt Bonner has 8 dimes, 9 pennies, and 4 quarters in his pocket. If each coin is equally likely to be pulled out of his pocket
Lesechka [4]

Answer:

B. 0.602%

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is essentially (# times specific event will occur) / (# times general event will occur). Here, we have a few specific events: draw a quarter, draw a second quarter, draw a penny, and draw another penny. The general event will just be the number of coins there are to choose from.

The probability that the first draw is a quarter will be 4 / (4 + 8 + 9) = 4/21.

Since we've drawn one now, there's only 21 - 1 = 20 total coins left. The probability of drawing a second quarter is: (4 - 1) / (21 - 1) = 3/20.

The probability of drawing a penny is: 9 / (20 - 1) = 9/19.

The probability of drawing a second penny is: (9 - 1) / (19 - 1) = 8/18.

Multiply these four probabilities together:

(4/21) * (3/20) * (9/19) * (8/18) = 864 / 143640 ≈ 0.602%

The answer is B.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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