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Elden [556K]
3 years ago
13

Pls help me

Mathematics
2 answers:
Sholpan [36]3 years ago
7 0
Solution
Since the sum of the consecutive angles of a parallelogram is equal to 180°, the two other consecutive angles of the parallelogram have the angle measure
180°- 36° = 144°.

Since the opposite angles of a parallelogram are congruent, the angle opposite to the given one of 36° has the angle measure of 36° too.

Answer. The rest of the angles of the parallelogram have the angle measure of 144° (the consecutive angle), 36° (the opposite angle), and 144° (the second consecutive angle).

Afina-wow [57]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is 72, 72, 108, and 108 degrees. Verified answer

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that one angle is 36 degrees greater than the other.

x; x+36

We know that x+x+36=180,

and 2x=144; x=72

We know that one angle is 72 degrees. Now we add 36 to 72, in order to find the angle that is 36 degrees more than 72. The answer is 108 degrees. Now because of the theorem, we know that the angle opposite of an angle is congruent, so the answer is 72,72, 108, and 108.

Hope you found this helpful!

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Answer:15

Step-by-step explanation:

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wariber [46]

Answer:

P(x < 5)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(x=3)+P(X=4)

P(X=0)=(15C0)(0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{15-0}=0.0000305

P(X=1)=(15C1)(0.5)^1 (1-0.5)^{15-1}=0.000458

P(X=2)=(15C2)(0.5)^2 (1-0.5)^{15-2}=0.0032

P(X=3)=(15C3)(0.5)^3 (1-0.5)^{15-3}=0.0139

P(X=4)=(15C4)(0.5)^4 (1-0.5)^{15-4}=0.0417

And adding we got:

P(x < 5)=0.0592

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=15, p=0.5)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

And we want to find this probability:

P(x < 5)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(x=3)+P(X=4)

P(X=0)=(15C0)(0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{15-0}=0.0000305

P(X=1)=(15C1)(0.5)^1 (1-0.5)^{15-1}=0.000458

P(X=2)=(15C2)(0.5)^2 (1-0.5)^{15-2}=0.0032

P(X=3)=(15C3)(0.5)^3 (1-0.5)^{15-3}=0.0139

P(X=4)=(15C4)(0.5)^4 (1-0.5)^{15-4}=0.0417

And adding we got:

P(x < 5)=0.0592

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SOLUTION:

Step 1:

In this question, we are given the following:

Step 2:

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