Answer:
6
because when you subtract 6 from 6 you get 0
6 - 6 = 0
Answer:
84%
Step-by-step explanation:
The empirical rule tells you that 68% of the standard normal distribution is within 1 standard deviation of the mean. The distribution is symmetrical, so the amount in the lower tail is (1 -68%)/2 = 16%.
Since the number you're interested in, 240, is one standard deviation above the mean (200 +40), the percentage of interest is the sum of the area of the central part of the distribution along with the lower tail:
68% + 16% = 84%.
The answer is D. It does not satisfy the second equation because 0 is not greater than 1.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
using your f(x) I want to show you how to plug in different things itnot he function.
f(x) = -x + 4
f(1) = -1 + 4 = 3
f(2) = -2 + 4 = 2
f(m) = -m + 4
f(abc) = -(abc) + 4
f(h(x)) = -h(x) + 4
Does that help? what if you replaced h(x) with g(x)? Of course you already have that x so you could make it a little simpler as well. Let me know if you don't quite get it.
Answer: i've heard about it but i'm not too much into it