Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer:
what do you call 2 Mexicans playing basketball
Explanation:
btw it's a dad joke
Answer: $54,000 per production run
Explanation:
As we are dealing with the decision of whether or not to process the good further, the irrelevant cost would be the cost of producing product B from input R.
This is because this cost has already been incurred to produce product B and so is a sunk cost. Sunk costs are irrelevant to the decision to process further.
30,000 units of B were made from 90,000 units R so the cost of B is:
= 30,000 / 50,000 * 90,000
= $54,000
<em />
<em>The options here are probably for a variant of this question.</em>
Answer:
The amount of dividend received by common stockholders in 2017 = $7500
Explanation:
The preference shares are cumulative which means the 2015 dividend on cumulative preference shares will be paid in the next year when dividend is declatred.
The total dividend on preference shjares is = 2500 * 100 * 0.05 = $12500
In 2016 dividend of 22500 is declared and paid.
Out of this 22500, 12500 relates to prefernece dividend for 2015.
The remaining 10000 relates to 2016 preference dividend. Thus, 2500 of 2016 preference dividned is outstanding and will be paid in 2017.
In 2017 out of 22500, 15000 (12500 + 2500) dividendd is paid to preference share holders.
The amount of dividend received by common stockholders in 2017 = 22500 - 15000 = $7500