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Mkey [24]
3 years ago
15

A contract for sale of real estate usually calls for the seller to provide evidence of title as a requisite to completing the sa

le. Today, the predominant medium through which a seller meets this requirement is by providing:
Business
2 answers:
HACTEHA [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C) only a title insurance commitment.

Explanation:

It is very common nowadays to hire a title company when you are purchasing a house or other real estate. A title company should review the title and issue a title policy that protects the buyer form any problems related to the property's title.

Before a title insurance policy can be issued, a title commitment is made. This means that the title company promises to issue a title policy after the sale is closed. The reason for this is that the title company can only issue a title policy after you bought the house, but the commitment means that they will issue it if you purchase the house.

The seller is responsible for presenting all the documents that the title company requests in order for them to issue first a title commitment and then the title policy.

ivann1987 [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

C. only a title insurance commitment.

Explanation:

Based on this information it can be said that the predominant medium through which a seller meets this requirement is by providing a title insurance commitment. This refers to a promise made to provide a title insurance policy for the property after closing the sale of that property. This alone would allow the seller to complete the sale of the property.

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True/False
lara [203]

Answer:

the answer is True.

Explanation:

There are 2 traits in an effective market segment.

  1. It is internally homogeneous (potential customers in the same segment prefer the same product qualities ).
  2. It is externally heterogeneous. In other words, potential customers from different segments have different quality preferences. It responds consistently to a given market stimulus.
4 0
3 years ago
A firm’s profit margin is 5 percent, its debt/assets ratio is 56 percent, and its dividend payout ratio is 40 percent.
beks73 [17]

Answer:

The given statement is FALSE.

Explanation:

It will only be till sustainable growth rate that the firm will not require external financing. The debt /ratio demands resources to sustain the operation, which are not powered by the profit margin.

3 0
3 years ago
Assume the following exchange rates: $1 = NZ$3, NZ$1 = MXP2, and $1 = MXP7. Given this information, as you and others perform tr
Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

c. Appreciate; Appreciate

Explanation:

Triangular arbitrage is the act of taking an opportunity resulting from a pricing discrepancy among three different currencies when the currency's exchange rates do not exactly match up

This cases are very rare and for a quite short period of time so there are very few traders who takes the advantange of them.

Lets study th given cases here:

A) NZ dollar Versus Mexican Peso

The exchage rate is 1NZ$= 2 Mexican Pesos (MXP)

But if we apply the triangular arbitrage:

1 NZ dollar = 0.3333 US$

and we know tha 1 US$= 7 Mexican Pesos (MXP

Then 1 NZ dollar = 0.3333* 7 MXP= 2.333 MXP

So the NZ dollar appreciates

B) MXP Versus U$S

The exchage rate is 1 MXP= (1/7) U$S

But if we apply the triangular arbitrage:

1 MXP = 0.5 NZ

and we know tha 1 NZ= 0.333 US$

Then 1 MXP = 0.5* 0.333 U$S= 0.166 U$S

So the MXP appreciates

7 0
4 years ago
Compute net income for 2019 by comparing total equity amounts for these two years and using the following information: During 20
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

net income during 2019 = $109,045

Explanation:

total stockholder equity 2018 = assets - liabilities = $293,500 - $79,245 = $214,255

total stockholder equity 2019 = assets - liabilities = $497,512 - $177,212 = $320,300

change in equity from 2018 to 2019 = $106,045

$33,000 can be explained by additional capital invested, and the remaining  $73,045 corresponds to change in retained earnings

change in retained earnings = net income - dividends distributed

$73,045 = net income - $36,000

net income = $109,045

7 0
3 years ago
Castelda company issues zero coupon bonds which mature in 30 years. These bonds can be bought for $999.38 and then pay no annual
professor190 [17]

Answer:

16.59%

Explanation:

We are given the present value of the bonds, their future value and the time, we need to calculate the rate:

FV = PV (1 + rate)ⁿ

  • FV = 100,000
  • PV = 999.38
  • n = 30

100,000 = 999.38 (1 + rate)³⁰

(1 + rate)³⁰ = 100,000 / 999.38 = 100.062

1 + rate = ³⁰√100.062 = 1.1659

rate = 1.1659 - 1 = 0.1659 or 16.59%

8 0
3 years ago
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