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1 year ago

Through which method of involuntary alienation may the government take private land for public use?

Business

1 answer:

Oduvanchick [21]1 year ago

8 0

Eminent domain is the governments' power to take private land for public use.

Which of the following is an involuntary alienation of property?

Involuntary Alienation. Involuntary alienation is the transfer of real estate by law and without the owner's consent.
There are 4 methods by which this is accomplished: foreclosure, eminent domain, adverse possession, and by escheat.

Which of the following is an involuntary alienation of property?

A grantor does not wish to be responsible for defects in the title that arise from previous owners but will guarantee the title for the time the grantor has the ownership.

What is involuntary alienation ?

Involuntary Alienation. Involuntary alienation is the transfer of ownership without consent and control of the owner.

Learn more about Involuntary Alienation

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Sheen Co. manufacturers laser printers. It has outlined the following overhead cost drivers: Overhead Costs PoolCost DriverOverh

andriy [413]

Answer:

Total allocated costs= $53,070

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate the allocation rates using the following formula:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Quality control= 77,000 / 1,100 = $70 per inspection

Machine operation= 153,000 / 1,500 = $102 per machine hour

Materials handling= 1,200 / 30 = $40 per batch

Miscellaneous overhead cost= 57,000 / 5,700= $10 per labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Quality control= 70*295= 20,650

Machine operation= 102*240= 24,480

Materials handling= 40*6= 240

Miscellaneous overhead cost= 10*770= 7,700

Total allocated costs= $53,070

3 0

3 years ago

Dee's has a fixed asset turnover rate of 1.12 and a total asset turnover rate of 0.91. Sam's has a fixed asset turnover rate of

Andreyy89

Answer:

B.utilizing its total assets more efficiently than Sam's

Explanation:

Dee's has a fixed asset turnover rate of 1.12 and a total asset turnover rate of 0.91. Sam's has a fixed asset turnover rate of 1.15 and a total asset turnover rate of 0.88. Both companies have similar operations.

Based on this information, although Sam seems to be utilizing its fixed assets more efficiently, Dee's must be doing utilizing its total assets more efficiently than Sam's

The fixed asset turnover ratio is an efficiency ratio that measures a companies return on their investment in property, plant, and equipment by comparing net sales with fixed assets. In other words, it calculates how efficiently a company is a producing sales with its machines and equipment.

Dee's has a total asset turnover rate of 0.91 compared to a total asset turnover rate of 0.88 by Sam. Hence Dee's efficiency is higher.

5 0

3 years ago

you lend a friend 10,000 dollars for which your friend will repay you 27,027 dollars at the end of 5 years. What interest rate a

Step2247 [10]

Answer:

The interest rate is "21.999%".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Amount lent,

= 10,000

Amount repaid,

= 27,027

Years (n),

= 5

As we know,

⇒ $Amount \ repaid = Amount \ lent\times (1+r)^n$

On substituting the given values, we get

⇒ $27,027=10,000\times (1+r)^5$

⇒ $\frac{27,027}{10,000}=(1+r)^5$

⇒ $2.7027=(1+r)^5$

⇒ $1+r = (2.7027)^{(1/5)}$

⇒ $1+r=1.21999$

On subtracting "1" from both sides, we get

⇒ $1+r-1=1.21999-1$

⇒ $r=0.21999$

i.e.,

⇒ $r=21.999 \ percent$

5 0

3 years ago

Fill in the blanks: Stock prices fall if investors either expect _________ growth rates or require _________ returns.A. higher,

devlian [24]

Answer:

C. lower, higher

The reason for this is that when growth rates are lower investors will be willing to pay less for the stock is because low growth rate mean that the capital gains will be less as stock price is less likely to increase in the future and dividend growth is also less. Also the DDM model D*(1+G)/1-R shows that mathematically a lower growth rate would mean lower stock price

Also Higher required returns mean that the investor requires higher returns to buy the stock, because he may view the stock as risky and requires higher returns for the risk he is taking or he may have a higher opportunity cost (for eg interest rates may be high) with other investments. Mathematically the DDM model D*(1+G)/R-G shows us that a higher R would mean lower stock price.

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

When a broker-dealer maintains a firm market in a stock, that broker-dealer is committed to?

Jlenok [28]

When a broker-dealer maintains a firm market in a stock, that broker-dealer is committed to purchasing or sale of up to the stated maximum number of round lots (the standard trading unit of the stock) at the stated price.

This is further explained below.

Generally, A company providing professional services for compensation, such as law or accountancy, is called a "firm." One key tenet of "theory of the company" is that enterprises' primary purpose is to increase shareholder wealth.

In conclusion, By keeping a "firm market," a broker-dealer promises to buy or sell up to the maximum number of round lots (the stock's standard trading unit) at the quoted price.