Answer:
Manson Industries
The total cost savings that Manson will realize by buying the assembly part instead of making it is:
($14,700), showing that more costs will be incurred.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Make Buy
Variable cost per unit $5 $6
Fixed cost per unit 2 2
Total cost per unit $7 $8
Total units required 14,700 14,700
Total costs $102,900 $117,600
Cost saving = ($14,700)
b) Based on the above calculations, it benefits Manson more to produce the part internally than to buy from an outside supplier. There is a cost difference of $1 because the fixed costs will still be incurred whatever decision is taken.
Answer:
Salaries and wages payable...................Dr $20,000
Salaries and wages expense $20,000
Explanation:
As per accrual system, an expense is incurred when it is accrued irrespective of when it is paid. So, $20,000 was accrued in December 31, salary and wages expenses would have been debited then amounting to $20,000.
In order to rectify the mistake of double counting, the entry passed by the accountant would be reversed to nullify the effect.
Adjusting Journal entry:
Particulars Debit Credit
Salaries and wages payable $20,000
Salaries and wages expense $20,000
(Being double counting of salaries and
wages expense rectified)
Answer:
d) He earned a lower interest rate than he expected
Explanation:
Data provided in the question
Invested amount ten years ago = $1,000
Expected amount = $1,800
Today amount = $1,680
Based on the above information,
Since the bond is based on the floating rate not the fixed rate that results in the value of the investment to $1,800
And, the today amount is $1,680 i.e. less than the expected amount so the internet rate should be less as compared with the expected rate
hence, correct option is d.
Answer:
profit margin 7.77%
<em><u>Interpretation: </u></em> from evey dollar of sales the firm achieves almost 8 cent of net income
inventory turnover ratio 3.45
<em><u>Interpretation: </u></em>the inventory is sold 3 and a half times during the year
Explanation:
the profit margin is the quotient between net income and sales.
![\frac{net \: income}{sales} = $profit margin](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bnet%20%5C%3A%20income%7D%7Bsales%7D%20%3D%20%24profit%20margin)
127,500 / 1,640,000 = 7.77%
the inventory turnover wil be the cost of good sold over the average inventory during the year
(312,500 + 257,500)/ 2 = 285,000
982,500 / 285,000 = 3,447368421
Answer:
The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.
Explanation:
A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).
So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.
The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.
- Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
- Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
- Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.