Answer:
A) $704,000.
Explanation:
For computing the cash payments we need to calculate the following amounts which are as follows
Total purchases = cost of goods sold + ending inventory - opening inventory
= $720,000 + $188,000 - $200,000
= $708,000
Now cash payment to merchandise is
= Beginning account payable balance + purchased made - ending account payable balance
= $80,000 + $708,000 - $84,000
= $704,000
Hence, the correct option is A. $704,000
Answer:
- 10%
- (will increase in the short run) but in the long run it will return to the potential output level.
Explanation:
If the money supply is increased by 10%, the inflation rate will also increase by 10%.
In the short run the economy will be able to produce an output which is higher than the potential GDP, but once the inflation rate catches up, both the unemployment rate will increase and the real GDP will return to its potential output level.
Answer:
Find answers below.
Explanation:
Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.
Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk. To account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration, which is the weighted average of the time it takes to receive each of the bond's cash flows.
The bonds which would have the largest duration is a 10 year - zero coupon bond.
The minimum rate of return demanded by the firm is 12%. The closest turnover in the division is 4.02. Here option B is the correct answer.
A company's turnover is the total of its sales during a specific time period. It is sometimes referred to as "income" or "gross revenue."
The typical quantity of assets required to carry out continuing business activities is referred to as average operational assets. This number may be incorporated into the operational assets ratio, which evaluates how much of these assets make up overall assets owned by a company.
Divide the total number of separations that took place within the specified time period by the average number of employees to get your turnover rate. To express that amount as a percentage, multiply it by 100.
Turnover = Sales/Average operating assets
= 25720000/6400000
Turnover = 4.02
To learn more about turnover
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Answer:
$27
Explanation:
Giving that the most important(all in actuality) values related to the question are not listed, I'd do well to improvise and assume. And as such, I have these
I'm assuming that the minimum payment on a credit card is the greater of $27 or 3% of the unpaid balance. And thereafter, proceeding to find the minimum payment on an unpaid balance of about $815.69.
To do this, we use simple arithmetic to first find the value of the percentage in dollars, so that
3% of $815.69 = 3/100 * 815.69 = $24.471
Remember that drum the question, the minimum payment is greater than 3% of the unpaid balance or $27. Given than 24.47 is less than 27, our answer is $27
